1. Refer to the exhibit. A new PC was deployed in the Sales network. It was given the host address of 192.168.10.31 with a default gateway of 192.168.10.17. The PC is not communicating with the network properly. What is the cause?
• The address is in the wrong subnet.
• 192.168.10.31 is the broadcast address for this subnet.
• The default gateway is incorrect.
• The host address and default gateway are swapped.
2. Refer to the routing table shown in the exhibit. What is the meaning of the highlighted value 192?
• It is the value assigned by the Dijkstra algorithm that designates the number of hops in the network.
• It is the value used by the DUAL algorithm to determine the bandwidth for the link.
• It is the metric, which is cost.
• It is the administrative distance.
3. Refer to exhibit. Given the topology shown in the exhibit, what three commands are needed to configure EIGRP on the Paris router? (Choose three.)
• Paris(config)# router eigrp 100
• Paris(config)# router eigrp
• Paris(config-router)# network 192.168.6.0
• Paris(config-router)# network 192.168.7.0
• Paris(config-router)# network 192.168.8.0
• Paris(config-router)# network 192.168.9.0
4. What are three features of CDP? (Choose three.)
• tests Layer 2 connectivity
• provides a layer of security
• operates a OSI layers 2 and 3
• enabled by default on each interface
• used for debugging Layer 4 connectivity issues
• provides information on directly connected devices that have CDP enabled
5. Refer to the exhibit. What two statements are true based on the output shown? (Choose two.)
• the reported distance to network 172.16.1.0 is 2172416
• 192.168.10.5 and 192.168.10.9 are feasible successors
• neighbors 192.168.10.9 and 192.168.10.5 have auto summary disabled.
• router 3 is load balancing traffic to the 172.16.3.0 network across its serial interfaces.
• all interfaces shown on Router3 are in the passive state and will not send EIGRP advertisements
6. Which of the following should be considered when troubleshooting a problem with the establishment of neighbor relationships between OSPF routers? (Choose three.)
• OSPF interval timers mismatch
• gateway of last resort not redistributed
• interface network type mismatch
• no loopback interface configured
• administrative distance mismatch
• inconsistent authentication configuration
7. Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements are true of the routing table for Router1? (Choose three.)
• The route to network 172.16.0.0 has an AD of 156160.
• Network 192.168.0.16 can best be reached using FastEthernet0/0.
• The AD of EIGRP routes has been manually changed to a value other than the default value.
• Router1 is running both the EIGRP and OSPF routing process.
• Network 172.17.0.0 can only be reached using a default route.
• No default route has been configured.
8. Refer to the exhibit. The ORL router is unable to form a neighbor relationship with the JAX router. What is a possible cause of this problem?
• Router JAX has the wrong autonomous-system number.
• The command network 192.168.2.0 is missing from the EIGRP configuration on the JAX router.
• Automatic summarization is not disabled on the JAX router.
• Router JAX has the wrong IP address on the Fa0/1 interface.
9. Which statement is true regarding routing metrics?
• All routing protocols use the same metrics.
• EIGRP uses bandwidth as its only metric.
• Routers compare metrics to determine the best route.
• The larger metric generally represents the better path.
10. Which three statements are true of holddown timers? (Choose three.)
• used by link state routing protocols to prevent routing loops
• prevent update messages from reinstating a route that may have gone bad
• allow routers to still forward packets to destination networks that are in holddown
• limit the number of hops a packet can traverse through the network before it is discarded
• prevent a router advertising a network through the same interface from which the network was learned
permit lower metric updates received from any neighboring router to reinstate the route to a possibly down network
11. A router has learned about a network through static and dynamic routing processes. Which route will be used to reach network 192.168.168.0?
• D 192.168.168.0/24 [90/2195456] via 192.168.200.1, 00:00:09, Ethernet0
• O 192.168.168.0/24 [110/1012] via 192.168.200.1, 00:00:22, Ethernet0
• R 192.168.168.0/24 [120/1] via 192.168.200.1, 00:00:17, Ethernet0
• S 192.168.168.0/24 [1/0] via 192.168.200.1
12. The Suffolk router is directly connected to the networks shown in the graphic and has a default route that points to the Richmond router. All interfaces are active and properly addressed. However, when the workstation on network 172.29.5.0/24 sends a packet to destination address 172.29.198.5, it is discarded by the Suffolk router. What can be a reason for this result?
• The ip classless command is not enabled on the Richmond router.
• The route was ignored if the Richmond router did not include the 172.29.198.0/24 network in its routing updates.
• The Richmond router is in a different autonomous system than the Suffolk router.
• The ip subnet-zero command was not configured on the Suffolk router.
• The ip classless command is not enabled on the Suffolk router.
13. Which three statements are true regarding the encapsulation and de-encapsulation of packets when traveling through a router? (Choose three.)
• The router modifies the TTL field, decrementing it by one.
• The router changes the source IP to the IP of the exit interface.
• The router maintains the same source and destination IP.
• The router changes the source physical address to the physical address of the exit interface.
• The router changes the destination IP to the IP of the exit interface.
• The router sends the packet out all other interfaces, besides the one it entered the router on.
14. Which of the following are required when adding a network to the OSPF routing process configuration? (Choose three.)
• network address
• loopback address
• autonomous system number
• subnet mask
• wildcard mask
• area ID
15. Refer to the exhibit. The routers in the exhibit are running the EIGRP routing protocol. What statement is true regarding how packets will travel from the 172.16.1.0/16 network to the 192.168.200.0/24 network?
• The router chooses the first path that it learned and installs only that route in the routing table.
• The router chooses the path with the lowest administrative distance and installs only that route in the routing table.
• The router chooses the highest routing ID based on the advertised network IP addresses and installs only that route in the routing table.
• The router installs all the equal cost paths in the routing table but sends packets out only one, holding the others in reserve in case the primary route goes down.
• The router installs all the equal cost paths in the routing table and performs equal cost load balancing to send packets out multiple exit interfaces.
16. Which of the following could describe the devices labeled “?” in the graphic? (Choose three.)
• DCE
• CSU/DSU
• LAN switch
• Modem
• hub
17. Which three statements describe the operation of routing with EIGRP? (Choose three.)
• As new neighbors are discovered, entries are placed in a neighbor table.
• If the feasible successor has a higher advertised cost than the current successor route, then it becomes the primary route.
• If hello packets are not received within the hold time, DUAL must recalculate the topology.
• The reported distance is the distance to a destination as advertised by a neighbor.
• EIGRP maintains full knowledge of the network topology in the topology table and exchanges full routing information with neighboring routers in every update.
• EIGRP builds one routing table that contains routes for all configured routed protocols.
18. The network shown in the diagram is having problems routing traffic. It is suspected that the problem is with the addressing scheme. What is the problem with the addressing used in the topology?
• The address assigned to the Ethernet0 interface of Router1 is a broadcast address for that subnetwork.
• The subnetwork configured on the serial link between Router1 and Router2 overlaps with the subnetwork assigned to Ethernet0 of Router3.
• The subnetwork assigned to the Serial0 interface of Router1 is on a different subnetwork from the address for Serial0 of Router2.
• The subnetwork assigned to Ethernet0 of Router2 overlaps with the subnetwork assigned to Ethernet0 of Router3.
19. Refer to the exhibit. Packets destined to which two networks will require the router to perform a recursive lookup? (Choose two.)
• 10.0.0.0/8
• 64.100.0.0/16
• 128.107.0.0/16
• 172.16.40.0/24
• 192.168.1.0/24
• 192.168.2.0/24
20. Refer to exhibit. A company network engineer enters the following commands in the routers:R1(config)# ip route 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.0.2R2(config)# ip route 10.1.2.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.0.1When the engineer enters the show ip route command on R1, the routing table does not display the static route to the 10.1.1.0 network. All R1 and R2 interfaces are correctly addressed per the graphic. What is a logical next step that the engineer could take in order to make the static route display in the routing table in R1?
• Enter default routes in R1 and R2.
• Enable the R1 and R2 serial interfaces.
• Configure the static route to use an exit interface instead of a next-hop address.
• Enter the copy run start command to force the router to recognize the configuration.
21. When the show cdp neighbors command is issued from Router C, which devices will be displayed in the output?
• D, SWH-2
• A, B, D
• SWH-1, SWH-2
• B, D
• SWH-1, A, B
• A, B, D, SWH-1, SWH-2
22. Refer to the exhibit. R1 knows two routes, Path A and Path B, to the Ethernet network attached to R3. R1 learned Path A to network 10.2.0.0/16 from a static route and Path B to network 10.2.0.0/16 from EIGRP. Which route will R1 install in its routing table?
• Both routes are installed and load balancing occurs across both paths.
• The route via Path B is installed because the EIGRP route has the best metric to network 10.2.0.0/16.
• The route via Path A is installed because the static route has the best metric to network 10.2.0.0/16.
• The route via Path B is installed because the EIGRP route has the lowest administrative distance to network 10.2.0.0/16.
• The route via Path A is installed because the static route has the lowest administrative distance to network 10.2.0.0/16.
23. A network administrator has enabled RIP on routers B and C in the network diagram. Which of the following commands will prevent RIP updates from being sent to Router A?
• A(config)# router rip
A(config-router)# passive-interface S0/0
• B(config)# router rip
B(config-router)# network 192.168.25.48
B(config-router)# network 192.168.25.64
• A(config)# router rip
A(config-router)# no network 192.168.25.32
• B(config)# router rip
B(config-router)# passive-interface S0/0
• A(config)# no router rip
24. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator is testing network connectivity by issuing the tracert command from host A to host B. Given the exhibited output on host A, what are two possible routing table issues on the network? (Choose two.)
• Router1 is missing a route to the 172.16.0.0 network
• Router1 is missing a route to the 192.168.1.0 network
• Router2 is missing a route to the 10.0.0.0 network
• Router2 is missing a route to the 172.16.0.0 network
• Router3 is missing a route to the 10.0.0.0 network
• Router3 is missing a route to the 192.168.0.0 network
25. Refer to the exhibit. What will happen if interface Serial0/0/1 goes down on Router1?
• The Dijkstra algorithm will calculate the feasible successor.
• DUAL will query neighbors for a route to network 192.168.1.0.
• Neighbor 172.16.3.2 will be promoted to the feasible successor.
• Traffic destined to the 192.168.1.0 network will be dropped immediately due to lack of a feasible successor.
26. Refer to the exhibit. Pings are failing between HostA and HostB. The network administrator discovers that Router1 does not have a route to the 172.16.0.0 network. Assuming Router2 is configured correctly, which two static routes could be configured on Router1 to enable Host A to reach network 172.16.0.0? (Choose two.)
• ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 S0/0
• ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 S0/1
• ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 192.168.0.1
• ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 192.168.0.2
• ip route 192.168.0.1 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 S0/0
• ip route 192.168.0.1 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 S0/1
27. Refer to the exhibit. The results of the show ip route command are displayed in the graphic for Router R2. Which route will be selected for a packet with a destination address of 10.1.4.1?
• static route to 10.1.0.0/22
• RIP route to 10.1.0.0/23
• RIP route to 10.1.0.0/24
• 0.0.0.0/0 via 192.168.0.1
28. Refer to the exhibit. The network is running the RIP routing protocol. Network 10.0.0.0 goes down. Which statement is true regarding how the routers in this topology will respond to this event?
• Router4 will learn about the failed route 30 seconds later in the next periodic update.
• Split horizon will prevent Router4 from fowarding packets to the 10.0.0.0 network until the holddown timer expires.
• Router5 immediately flushes the unreachable route from its routing table.
• Router5 will send Router4 a triggered update with a metric of 16 for network 10.0.0.0.
29. Refer to the exhibit. When troubleshooting a network, it is important to interpret the output of various router commands. On the basis of the exhibit, which three statements are true? (Choose three.)
• The missing information for Blank 1 is the command show ip route.
• The missing information for Blank 1 is the command debug ip route.
• The missing information for Blank 2 is the number 100.
• The missing information for Blank 2 is the number 120.
• The missing information for Blank 3 is the letter R.
• The missing information for Blank 3 is the letter C.
30. A network administrator has configured a default route on Router_A but it is not being shared with adjacent Router_B and the other routers in the OSPF area. Which command will save the administrator the time and trouble of configuring this default route on Router_B and all of the other routers in the OSPF area?
• Router_A(config-router)# ospf redistribute default-route
• Router_B(config-router)# ospf redistribute default-route
• Router_A(config-router)# default-information originate
• Router_B(config-router)# default-information originate
• Router_A(config-router)# ip ospf update-default
• Router_B(config-router)# ip ospf update-default
31. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator issues the command no ip classless on Router1. What forwarding action will take place on a packet that is received by Router1 and is destined for host 192.168.0.26?
• The packet will be dropped.
• The packet will be forwarded to the gateway of last resort.
• The packet will match the 192.168.0.0 network and be forwarded out Serial 0/0.
• The packet will most closely match the 192.168.0.8 subnet and be forwarded out Serial 0/1.
32. Refer to the exhibit. A packet enters Router1 with a destination IP of 172.16.28.121. Which routing table entry will be used to forward this packet to the destination address?
• 172.16.0.0/16 [1/0] via 192.168.0.1
• 172.16.0.0/20 [1/0] via 192.168.0.9
• 172.16.16.0/20 [1/0] via 192.168.0.17
• 0.0.0.0/0 is directly connected, Serial0/0/1
33. The network administrator configures the router with the ip route 172.16.1.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.2.2 command. How will this route appear in the routing table?
• C 172.16.1.0 is directly connected, Serial0/0
• S 172.16.1.0 is directly connected, Serial0/0
• C 172.16.1.0 [1/0] via 172.16.2.2
• S 172.16.1.0 [1/0] via 172.16.2.2
34. Using default settings, what is the next step in the router boot sequence after the IOS loads from flash?
• Perform the POST routine.
• Search for a backup IOS in ROM.
• Load the bootstrap program from ROM.
• Load the running-config file from RAM.
• Locate and load the startup-config file from NVRAM.
35. What does RIP use to reduce convergence time in a larger network?
• It reduces the update timer to 15 seconds if there are more then 10 routes.
• It uses triggered updates to announce network changes if they happen in between the periodic updates.
• It uses random pings to detect if a pathway is down and therefore is preemptive on finding networks that are down.
• It uses multicast instead of broadcast to send routing updates.
36. Refer to the exhibit. What are the effects of the exhibited commands on the router?
• All passwords are encrypted.
• Only Telnet sessions are encrypted.
• Only the enable password is encrypted.
• Only the enable password and Telnet session are encrypted.
• Enable and console passwords are encrypted.
37. Refer to the exhibit. What is the most efficient summarization of the routes attached to router R1?
• 198.18.0.0/16
• 198.18.48.0/21
• 198.18.32.0/22
• 198.18.48.0/23
• 198.18.49.0/23
• 198.18.52.0/22
38. Refer to the exhibit. All router interfaces are configured with an IP address and are operational. If no routing protocols or static routes are configured, what information will be included in the show ip route command output for router A?
• All of the 192.168.x.0 networks will be in the routing table.
• Routes to networks 192.168.1.0/24, 192.168.2.0/24, and 192.168.3.0/24 will be in the routing table.
• The routing table will be empty because routes and dynamic routes have not been configured.
• A default route is automatically installed in the routing table to allow connectivity between the networks.
39. Refer to the exhibit. How many routes are both level 1 and qualify for use as an ultimate route?
• 1
• 2
• 3
• 4
• 5
• 6
40. When presented with multiple valid routes to a destination, what criteria does a router use to determine which routes to add to the routing table?
• The router selects the routes with the best metric. All routes that have the same best metric are added to the routing table.
• The router first selects routes with the lowest administrative distance. The resulting routes are then prioritized by metric and the routes with the best metric are added to the routing table.
• The router selects the routes with the lowest administrative distance. All routes with the same lowest administrative distance are added to the routing table.
• The router installs all routes in the routing table but uses the route with the best metric most when load balancing.
41. Refer to the exhibit. What summary address can Router2 advertise to Router1 to reach the three networks on Routers 3, 4, and 5 without advertising any public address space or overlapping the networks on Router1?
• 172.16.0.0/8
• 172.16.0.0/10
• 172.16.0.0/13
• 172.16.0.0/20
• 172.16.0.0/24
42. What is the purpose of the TTL field within an IP packet header?
• clears an unreachable route from the routing table after the invalid timer expires.
• prevents regular update messages from inappropriately reinstating a route that may have gone bad.
• removes an unreachable route from the routing table after the flush timer expires
• limits the period of time or number of hops a packet can traverse through the network before it should be discarded.
• used to mark the route as unreachable in a routing update that is sent to other routers
43. Refer to the exhibit. Hosts on the BOS Fa0/0 LAN are able to ping the Fa0/1 interface on the JAX router and all interfaces on the BOS and ORL routers. Why would hosts from the 10.0.0.0/24 network not be able to ping hosts on the Fa0/0 LAN of the JAX router?
• The JAX router has the wrong process ID.
• The JAX router needs the network 10.0.0.0 0.0.0.255 area 0 command.
• The JAX router needs the network 192.168.3.0 0.0.0.255 area 0 command.
• The BOS router needs the network 192.168.3.0 0.0.0.255 area 0 command.
44. What command would the network administrator apply to a router that is running OSPF to advertise the entire range of addresses included in 172.16.0.0/19 in area 0?
• R1(config-router)# network 172.16.0.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
• R1(config-router)# network 172.16.0.0 0.0.3.255 area 0
• R1(config-router)# network 172.16.0.0 0.0.15.255 area 0
• R1(config-router)# network 172.16.0.0 0.0.31.255 area 0
45. What are two tasks that must be completed before two routers can use OSPF to form a neighbor adjacency? (Choose two.)
• The routers must elect a designated router.
• The routers must agree on the network type.
• The routers must use the same dead interval.
• The routers must exchange link state requests.
• The routers must exchange database description packets
46. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true concerning the routing configuration?
• Using dynamic routing instead of static routing would have required fewer configuration steps.
• The 10.1.1.0/24 and 10.1.2.0/24 routes have adjacent boudaries and should be summarized.
• The static route will not work correctly.
• Packets routed to the R2 ethernet interface require two routing table lookups.
47. What can be determined from the output shown in the exhibit? (Choose two.)
• Annapolis is a 2611 router that is connected to the S0/0 interface of the Montgomery router.
• All of the routers are connected to Montgomery through an Ethernet switch.
• Montgomery has Layer 2 connectivity with Cumberland.
• Layer 3 connectivity is operational for all of the devices listed in the Device ID column.
• An administrator consoled into the Waldorf router can ping the Brant router.
• Brant, Fisherman, and Potomac are directly connected to Montgomery.
48. What is the function of the OSPF LSU packet?
• used to confirm receipt of certain types of OSPF packets
• used to establish and maintain adjacency with other OSPF routers
• used to request more information about any entry in the BDR
• used to announce new OSPF information and to reply to certain types of requests
50. Refer to the exhibit. All routers in the network are running RIPv2 and EIGRP with default routing protocol settings and have interfaces configured with the bandwidths that are shown in the exhibit. Which protocol will be used and how will traffic between the Router1 LAN and Router5 LAN be routed through the network?
• RIPv2 will load balance across both paths between Router1 and Router5.
• EIGRP will load balance across both paths between Router1 and Router5.
• RIPv2 traffic will use the path Router1, Router2, Router5 because it has the least hops.
• EIGRP traffic will use the path Router1, Router3, Router4, Router5 because it has the best metric.
51. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is trying to figure out why BOS does not have the 10.0.0.0/24 network in its routing table. All routers are configured for OSPF in area 0. The links between the routers are operational and the administrator is able to ping between all router interfaces. What is a logical next step that the network administrator should take to troubleshoot the problem?
• Reboot the routers.
• Change the OSPF process ID on all of the routers to 0.
• Check to see if the cable is loose between BOS and JAX.
• Check to see if CDP packets are passing between the routers.
• Use show and debug commands to determine if hellos are propagating.
52. Refer to the exhibit. The network is using the RIPv2 routing protocol. If network 10.0.0.0 goes down, what mechanism will prevent Router1 from advertising false routing information back to Router2?
• triggered updates
• poison reverse
• holddown timers
• split horizon
53. Which two router component and operation pair are correctly described? (Choose two.)
• DRAM -loads the bootstrap
• RAM -stores the operating system
• Flash -executes diagnostics at bootup
• NVRAM -stores the configuration file
• ROM -stores the backup configuration file
• POST -runs diagnostics on hardware modules
54. Which of the following are primary functions of a router? (Choose two.)
• packet switching
• microsegmentation
• domain name resolution
• path selection
• flow control
55. Refer to the exhibit. Which path will traffic from the 172.16.1.0/24 network take to get to the 10.0.0.0/24 network?
• ADC
• ABC
• It will load balance the traffic between ADC and ABC
• It will send the traffic via ABC, and will use ADC as a backup path only when ABC fails.
56. Refer to the exhibit. Routers 1 and 2 are directly connected over a serial link. Pings are failing between the two routers. What change by the administrator will correct the problem?
• Set the encapsulation on both routers to PPP.
• Decrease the bandwidth on Serial 0/1/0 on router 2 to 1544.
• Change the cable that connects the routers to a crossover cable.
• Change the IP address on Serial 0/1/0 on router 2 to 192.168.0.1/30.
57. Which two statements are true regarding link-state routing protocols? (Choose two.)
• They do not work well in networks that require special heirarchical designs.
• They are aware of the complete network topology.
• They pass their entire routing tables to their directly connected neighbors only.
• They offer rapid convergence times in large networks.
• They rely on decreasing hop counts to determine the best path.
• They do not include subnet masks in their routing updates.
58. Which three statements about routing protocols are true? (Choose three.)
• OSPF elects designated routers on multiaccess links.
• RIP does not support classless routing.
• EIGRP supports unequal cost load balancing.
• EIGRP uses broadcast traffic to establish adjacencies with its neighbors.
• RIP does not advertise a route beyond a hop count of 15.
• OSPF can convergence more quickly because it can find a feasible successor in its topology table when a successor route goes down.
Friday, January 2, 2009
CCNA 3 - Final Exam
1. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator needs to setup Switch1 for remote access from HostA. Theshow ip interface brief is issued on Router1 and the show interfaces trunk command is issued on theSwitch1 to verify the current status. The administrator applies the additional configuration shown in theexhibit to Switch1. However, the telnet from HostA fails. What additional commands need to be appliedto the switch?
• Switch(config)# interface vlan 1
Switch(config-if)# ip address 10.1.1.250 255.255.255.0
Switch(config-if)# no shutdown
Switch(config-if)# ip default-gateway 10.1.10.254
• Switch(config)# interface vlan 1
Switch(config-if)# ip address 10.1.50.250 255.255.255.0
Switch(config-if)# no shutdown
Switch(config-if)# ip default-gateway 10.1.50.254
• Switch(config)# interface vlan 10
Switch(config-if)# ip address 10.1.10.250 255.255.255.0
Switch(config-if)# no shutdown
Switch(config-if)# ip default-gateway 10.1.10.254
• Switch(config)# interface vlan 10
Switch(config-if)# ip address 10.1.1.250 255.255.255.0
Switch(config-if)# no shutdown
Switch(config-if)# ip default-gateway 10.1.10.254
• Switch(config)# interface vlan 50
Switch(config-if)# ip address 10.1.10.250 255.255.255.0
Switch(config-if)# no shutdown
Switch(config-if)# ip default-gateway 10.1.10.254
2. Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the configuration shown, how will an Ethernet frame on port GigabitEthernet0/1 be modified?
• 802.1Q encapsulation prepends a 4-byte tag field in front of the original Ethernet frame and recomputes the frame check sequence (FCS) on the modified frame.
• 802.1Q encapsulation inserts a 4-byte tag field into the original Ethernet frame between the source address and type/length fields and recomputes the frame check sequence (FCS) on the modified frame.
• 802.1Q encapsulation prepends an 802.1p field in front of the original Ethernet frame and recomputes the frame check sequence (FCS) on the modified frame. • 802.1Q encapsulation inserts an 802.1p field into the original Ethernet frame between the source address and type/length fields and recomputes the frame check sequence (FCS) on the modified frame.
3. What VLANs are allowed across a trunk when the range of allowed VLANs is set to the default value?
• All VLANs will be allowed across the trunk.
• Only VLAN 1 will be allowed across the trunk.
• Only the native VLAN will be allowed across the trunk.
• The switches will negotiate via VTP which VLANs to allow across the trunk.
4. Which parameter is used to uniquely identify one wireless network from another?
• SSID
• OFDM
• WEP
• DSSS
5. Refer to the exhibit. What is the consequence if SW1 port F0/1 is configured as an edge port?
• SW1 port F0/1 transitions to the learning state.
• SW1 port F0/1 can generate a temporary loop.
• SW1 port F0/1 becomes a non-designated port.
• SW1 port F0/2 no longer passes BPDUs to SW4.
6. Refer to the exhibit. What will allow a host on VLAN 40 on switch X to communicate with a host in VLAN 40 on switch Y?
• QoS
• routing
• trunking
• VPN
7. Refer to the exhibit. Spanning-tree port priorities are 128 for all interfaces. The network administrator enters the spanning-tree vlan 1 root primary command on S4. Which two port results are correct? (Choose two.)
• S1 Gi0/1 becomes a root port.
• S2 Gi0/2 becomes a non-designated port.
• S3 Gi0/1 becomes a non-designated port.
• S4 Gi0/1 becomes a root port.
• S4 Gi0/2 becomes a designated port.
8. Refer to the exhibit. Which two facts can be confirmed by this output? (Choose two.)
• This switch shows no configuration revision errors.
• This switch has established two-way communication with the neighboring devices.
• This switch is configured to advertise its VLAN configuration to other VTP-enabled switches in the same VTP domain.
• This switch will drop all VTP advertisements that come from the switches that are configured in the same VTP domain.
• This switch will cause no disruption in the VTP domain operations if the rest of the switches in the same VTP domain have a higher configuration revision number.
9. Refer to the exhibit. R1 is configured for traditional inter-VLAN routing. R1 can ping computer 3 but cannot ping computer 1. What is a possible cause for this failure?
• S1 port Fa0/11 is in the wrong VLAN.
• R1 does not have an active routing protocol.
• The IP address of computer 1 is in the wrong logical network.
• Router interface Fa0/0 has the wrong trunk encapsulation type configured.
10. Refer to the exhibit. Both switches are interconnected via a trunk link. Host A and host B are on the default VLAN but are not able to exchange traffic. What should be done to fix the problem?
• Allow all VLANs on the trunk link.
• Remove the native VLAN from the trunk.
• Include a router or switch with Layer 3 capabilities.
• Configure the same native VLAN on both ends of the trunk.
11. Refer to the exhibit. The hosts connected to switch SW1 are not able to communicate with the hosts in the same VLANs connected to switch SW2. What should be done to fix the problem?
• Configure VLANs with different VLAN IDs on switch SW2.
• Reconfigure the trunk port on switch SW2 with static trunk configuration.
• Introduce a Layer 3 device or a switch with Layer 3 capability in the topology.
• Apply IP addresses that are in the same subnet to the interfaces used to connect SW1 and SW2.
12. What happens when the crypto key zeroize rsa command is entered on a switch configured with the transport input ssh command on the vty lines?
• A new RSA key pair is created.
• The switch defaults to allowing Telnet connections only.
• The switch is no longer able to make SSH connections as an SSH client.
• The switch allows remote connections only after a new RSA key pair is generated.
13. Refer to the exhibit. An Ethernet switch has developed the CAM table shown. What action will the switch take when it receives the frame shown at the bottom of the exhibit?
• forward the frame out all interfaces except Interface3
• add station 00-00-3D-1F-11-05 to Interface2 in the forwarding table
• forward the frame out Interface3
• discard the frame
• forward the frame out all interfaces
• forward the frame out Interface2
14. Which two statements describe Spanning Tree Protocol? (Choose two.)
• It eliminates Layer 2 loops in network topologies.
• It eliminates the need for redundant physical paths in network topologies.
• It can only be used in networks in which Layer 2 switching is in use.
• It can only be used in networks where both routers and switches are used together.
• It can only be used in networks where routers are installed.
15. Refer to the exhibit. A new host needs to be connected to VLAN 1. Which IP addresses should be assigned to this new host?
• 192.168.1.11 /28
• 192.168.1.22 /28
• 192.168.1.33 /28
• 192.168.1.44 /28
• 192.168.1.55 /28
16. Refer to the exhibit. How does SW1 manage traffic coming from Host A?
• SW1 drops the traffic because it is untagged.
• SW1 leaves the traffic untagged and forwards it over the trunk.
• SW1 tags the traffic with the lowest VLAN ID value and forwards it over the trunk link.
• SW1 encapsulates the traffic with 802.1Q encapsulation and forwards it over the trunk link.
17. Refer to the exhibit. The switches are configured for VTP as shown. Which two statements correctly describe the operation of these switches? (Choose two.)
• A new VLAN can be added to Switch1 and that information will be added only to Switch2.
• A new VLAN can be added to Switch1 and that information will be added to Switch2 and Switch4.
• An existing VLAN can be deleted from Switch4 and that VLAN will be deleted from Switch1 and Switch2.
• An existing VLAN can be deleted from Switch2 and that VLAN will be deleted from Switch1 and Switch4.
• A new VLAN can be added to Switch4 and that information will be added to Switch1, Switch2, and Switch3.
• A new VLAN can be added to Switch3 and that information will be added to Switch1, Switch2, and Switch4.
18. Refer to the exhibit. Computer A sends a broadcast message. Which devices will see the broadcast?
• computer B
• computer B and Router1
• computer C and Router1
• computer B, computer D, computer E and Router1
• computer B, computer C, computer D, computer E and Router1
• computer A, computer B, computer C, computer D, computer E and Router1
19. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator enters the configuration shown to allow both SSH and Telnet connections to the switch. The Telnet connections fail. What is the most likely cause of this problem?
• The SSH version number is wrong.
• SSH has been configured on the wrong line.
• Telnet and SSH cannot be configured simultaneously.
• The transport input command is configured incorrectly.
20. Refer to the exhibit. Which switch will be elected as the root bridge of the spanning tree topology?
• Cat-A
• Cat-B
• Cat-C
• Cat-D
21. Refer to the exhibit. The switches in the exhibit have VTP pruning enabled. Which VLANs will be pruned from switch SW3?
• VLAN 10 and VLAN 20
• VLAN 1, VLAN 10, and VLAN 20
• VLAN 1, VLAN 1002 through 1005
• VLAN 1, VLAN 10, VLAN 20, VLAN 1002 through 1005
22. Refer to the exhibit. What does STATIC indicate in the output that is shown?
• The switch will not allow any other device to connect to port Fa0/15.
• Traffic destined for MAC address 0000.c123.5432 will be forwarded to Fa0/15.
• This entry will be removed and refreshed every 300 seconds to keep it in the table.
• The switch learned this MAC address from the source address in a frame received on Fa0/15.
• When processing a frame, the switch does not have to perform a lookup to determine the final destination port.
23. Which three statements are regarding router-on-a-stick inter-VLAN routing? (Choose three.)
• requires the use of subinterfaces on the router
• requires an access link between the router and Layer 2 switch
• more cost-efficient and scalable than using multiple physical interfaces
• requires each subinterface to be configured with the no shutdown command
• can impact performance if many VLANs compete for bandwidth on a single router interface
• makes troubleshooting the inter-VLAN routing configuration much less complex than when using multiple physical interfaces
24. Refer to the exhibit. Router RA receives a packet with a source address of 192.168.1.35 and a destination address of 192.168.1.85. What will the router do with this packet?
• The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.1.
• The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.2.
• The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.3.
• The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.2 and interface FastEthernet 0/1.3.
• The router will ignore the packet because the source and destination are on the same broadcast domain.
• The router will drop the packet since no network that includes the source address is attached to the router.
25. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator needs to remove the east-hosts VLAN and use the switch port from that VLAN in one of the existing VLANs. What two commands should be used when completely removing VLAN 2 from S1-Central while leaving the switch and all its interfaces operational? (Choose two.)
• S1-Central# reload
• S1-Central# erase flash:
• S1-Central(config)# no vlan 2
• S1-Central# delete flash:vlan.dat
• S1-Central(config-if)# switchport access vlan 3
26. Refer to the exhibit. What does “FORWARDING” mean in the command output shown?
• The switch is sending and receiving data frames.
• The switch is receiving BPDUs, but not sending data frames.
• The switch is participating in an election process by forwarding the BPDUs it receives.
• The switch is receiving BPDUs and populating the MAC address table, but not sending data.
27. Refer to the exhibit. Switch SW2 has been newly purchased and added to the network. What configuration should be applied to SW2 so that it participates in the same VTP domain as switch SW1, receives VLAN information from SW1, and synchronizes VLAN information?
• Disable VTP pruning on SW2.
• Configure SW2 in VTP transparent mode.
• Configure SW2 with the VTP domain password.
• Configure SW2 as a VTP server with a higher revision number.
28. What are three benefits of a hierarchical network model? (Choose three.)
• reduced contention for bandwidth
• reduced size of the physical layout
• increased fault tolerance of the network
• elimination of the need for wiring closets
• elimination of the need for layer three functionality
• simplification of management and troubleshooting
29. Refer to the exhibit. Which three options correctly identify information that could be associated with this output?(Choose three.)
• Interface FastEthernet3/0/0 is subinterfaced.
• A non-proprietary trunking protocol is in use.
• The configuration is appropriate for a router-on-a-stick network design.
• A shutdown command has been applied to interface FastEthernet3/0/0.
• Interface FastEthernet3/0/0.3 is mapped to the default management VLAN.
• An IP address should be applied to FastEthernet3/0/0 for correct data routing.
30. Refer to the exhibit. Switch SW2 was tested in a lab environment and then inserted into a production network without reloading its configuration. After the trunk link between SW1 and SW2 was brought up, all users lost connectivity to the network. What could be the source of the problem?
• All the VLANs were pruned from the trunk port between SW1 and SW2.
• SW1 and SW2 cannot be both set as VTP servers in the same VTP domain.
• VTP configuration revision number of SW2 was higher than the configuration revision number of SW1.
• The additional VLANs from SW2 created more VLANs than the VLAN database of SW1 could contain.
31. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator needs to implement inter-VLAN routing on a hierarchical network. On which devices should the inter-VLAN routing be configured?
• AS1 and AS2
• DS1 and DS2
• Gateway and CS1
• Gateway, CS1, DS1, and DS2
32. Which three statements are correct concerning the default configuration of a new switch? (Choose three.)
• Spanning Tree Protocol is disabled.
• Enable password is configured as cisco.
• All switch ports are assigned to VLAN1.
• The flash directory contains the IOS image.
• VLAN1 is configured with a management IP address.
• All interfaces are set to auto-negotiation of speed and duplex.
33. Refer to the exhibit. All hosts are in listen mode. Host 1 and Host 4 both transmit data at the same time. How do the hosts respond on the network? (Choose two.)
• After the end of the jam signal, a backoff algorithm is invoked.
• Hosts 1 and 4 are operating full duplex so no collision will exist.
• The hub will block the port connected to Host 4 to prevent a collision.
• Hosts 1 and 4 are assigned shorter backoff values to provide them priority to access the media.
• If a host has data to transmit after the backoff period of that host, the host checks to determine if the line is idle before transmitting.
34. Refer to the exhibit. After the listed commands are entered into router R1 and switch S1, the administrator enters the show interface fa0/1 trunk and gets the results shown. What is the likely problem?
• The trunk is established, but no VLANs have been configured to use it.
• The trunk has not been established because the router does not support dynamic trunking protocol.
• The router, the switch, or both must be configured with the dynamic desirable option for dynamic trunking protocol to establish a trunk.
• The router is missing the dynamic trunking protocol statements necessary to form a trunk.
35. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are about the operation of the interfaces? (Choose two.)
• Incoming traffic with VLAN ID 0 is processed by interface fa0/0.
• Incoming traffic that has a VLAN ID of 2 is processed by subinterface fa0/0.2.
• Both subinterfaces remain up with line protocol up, even if fa0/0 line protocol is down.
• Subinterfaces use unique MAC addresses by adding the 802.1Q VLAN ID to the hardware address.
• Traffic inbound on this router is processed by different subinterfaces, depending on the VLAN from which the traffic originated.
36. What three tasks should be performed before moving a Catalyst switch to another VTP management domain? (Choose three.)
• Select the correct VTP mode and version.
• Configure the switch with the name of the new management domain.
• Download the VTP database from the VTP server in the new domain.
• Configure the VTP server in the new domain to recognize the BID of the switch.
• Reset the VTP counters to allow the switch to synchronize with the other switches in the new domain.
• Verify that the switch has a lower configuration revision number than the other switches in the new domain.
37. Refer to the exhibit. Hosts A and B, connected to hub HB1, attempt to transmit a frame at the same time but a collision occurs. Which hosts will receive the collision jamming signal?
• only hosts A and B
• only hosts A, B, and C
• only hosts A, B, C, and D
• only hosts A, B, C, and E
38. Which statement regarding the service password-encryption command is ?
• The service password-encryption command is entered at the privileged EXEC mode prompt.
• The service password-encryption command encrypts only passwords for the console and VTY ports.
• The service password-encryption command encrypts all previously unencrypted passwords in the running configuration.
• To see the passwords encrypted by the service password-encryption command, enter the no service password-encryption command.
39. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are regarding what the cost value of 23 represents for Switch4? (Choose two.)
• This cost represents the lowest cost path for Switch4 to the root switch.
• A cost of 23 is the value being advertised out port 16 on the switch upstream (closer) to the root switch.
• Switch4 adds the cost of a Fast Ethernet link to 23 to determine its total cost to reach the root switch.
• Switch4 is connected via a Fast Ethernet link to an upstream switch that in turn is directly connected to the root switch via a Gigabit Ethernet link.
• The root switch is advertising a cost of 23, which is lower than any other switch in the VLAN0001 spanning-tree domain.
40. Refer to the exhibit. What three statements describe why Host1 and Host2 are unable to communicate? (Choose three.)
• The switch ports are on different VLANs.
• The switch IP address is on the wrong subnet.
• The hosts are configured on different logical networks.
• A router is required to forward traffic between Host1 and Host2.
• The VLAN port assignments must be contiguous for each VLAN.
• The host default gateway addresses must be on the same logical network.
41. Refer to the exhibit. Each switch is shown with its MAC address. Which switch will be elected as the spanning-tree root bridge if the switches are configured with their default priority values?
• switch A
• switch B
• switch C
• switch D
• switch E
• switch F
42. Refer to the exhibit. Hosts PC_A and PC_B send traffic simultaneously, and the frames from the transmitting stations collide. What is the last device to receive the collision?
• hub HB1
• switch SW1
• router R1
• switch SW2
• router R2
• switch SW4
43. Why is it important that the network administrator consider the spanning-tree network diameter when choosing the root bridge?
• The network diameter limitation is 9.
• BPDUs may be discarded because of expiring timers.
• The cabling distance between the switches is 100 meters.
• The network diameter must be set to the number of meters of the cable between the root bridge and its farthest connected switch.
44. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has segmented the network into two VLANs and configured Router1 for inter-VLAN routing. A test of the network, however, shows that hosts on each VLAN can only access local resources and not resources on the other VLAN. What is the most likely cause of this problem?
• Switch port Fa0/1 is not trunking.
• Router interface Fa0/0 is possibly down.
• No routing protocol is configured on Router1.
• One of the router subinterfaces is possibly down.
45. What is the purpose of issuing the command switchport mode access on a switch interface?
• disable port security
• make the port operational
• override the default port behavior
• force the port to be a part of a single vlan
46. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is regarding the information shown?
• Only one VLAN is currently configured to use the trunk links.
• The switch negotiated trunk links for interfaces Fa0/1 and Gi0/1.
• A Cisco proprietary protocol is in use for interfaces Fa0/1 and Gi0/1.
• Interfaces Gi0/1 and Fa0/1 are allowed to carry data from multiple VLANs
47. Which identifier is used to keep track of frames that are destined for a particular wireless client?
• AID
• SSID
• BSSID
• ESSID
48. Refer to the exhibit. What will happen when frames that contain an unknown source address reach interface fa0/24?
• A syslog message will be logged.
• Fa0/24 will become error-disabled.
• The incoming frames will be dropped.
• The security violation count will be incremented.
49. In which mode is a VTP switch operating if it has been configured to only forward VTP advertisements?
• client
• root
• server
• transparent
50. Which method establishes an administrative connection for configuring the Linksys WRT300N wireless access point?
• Associate with the access point and then open a HyperTerminal session with the access point.
• Physically connect to the access point and then reboot the computer to launch the configuration software.
• From a computer in the same IP subnet as the access point, enter the default IP address of the access point in a web browser.
• Modify the TCP/IP properties of the computer connected to the access point so that it exists on the same network, and then reboot your computer to establish a connection.
51. What two methods can be used to remove MAC address table entries from a switch? (Choose two.)
• Power cycle the switch to clear all dynamically learned addresses
• The clear switching-tables command will remove statically configured entries.
• The clear mac-address-table command will remove statically and dynamically configured table entries.
• The erase flash command will clear all statically configured table entries.
• Statically configured MAC addresses will automatically be removed from the address table 300 minutes after the last activity on a switch port.
52. What are two benefits of the IEEE 802.11n standard over the IEEE 802.11G? (Choose two.)
• requires less equipment
• provides improved range
• permits increased data rates
• has a single-input and a single-output
• needs no hardware upgrade for compatibility
• Switch(config)# interface vlan 1
Switch(config-if)# ip address 10.1.1.250 255.255.255.0
Switch(config-if)# no shutdown
Switch(config-if)# ip default-gateway 10.1.10.254
• Switch(config)# interface vlan 1
Switch(config-if)# ip address 10.1.50.250 255.255.255.0
Switch(config-if)# no shutdown
Switch(config-if)# ip default-gateway 10.1.50.254
• Switch(config)# interface vlan 10
Switch(config-if)# ip address 10.1.10.250 255.255.255.0
Switch(config-if)# no shutdown
Switch(config-if)# ip default-gateway 10.1.10.254
• Switch(config)# interface vlan 10
Switch(config-if)# ip address 10.1.1.250 255.255.255.0
Switch(config-if)# no shutdown
Switch(config-if)# ip default-gateway 10.1.10.254
• Switch(config)# interface vlan 50
Switch(config-if)# ip address 10.1.10.250 255.255.255.0
Switch(config-if)# no shutdown
Switch(config-if)# ip default-gateway 10.1.10.254
2. Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the configuration shown, how will an Ethernet frame on port GigabitEthernet0/1 be modified?
• 802.1Q encapsulation prepends a 4-byte tag field in front of the original Ethernet frame and recomputes the frame check sequence (FCS) on the modified frame.
• 802.1Q encapsulation inserts a 4-byte tag field into the original Ethernet frame between the source address and type/length fields and recomputes the frame check sequence (FCS) on the modified frame.
• 802.1Q encapsulation prepends an 802.1p field in front of the original Ethernet frame and recomputes the frame check sequence (FCS) on the modified frame. • 802.1Q encapsulation inserts an 802.1p field into the original Ethernet frame between the source address and type/length fields and recomputes the frame check sequence (FCS) on the modified frame.
3. What VLANs are allowed across a trunk when the range of allowed VLANs is set to the default value?
• All VLANs will be allowed across the trunk.
• Only VLAN 1 will be allowed across the trunk.
• Only the native VLAN will be allowed across the trunk.
• The switches will negotiate via VTP which VLANs to allow across the trunk.
4. Which parameter is used to uniquely identify one wireless network from another?
• SSID
• OFDM
• WEP
• DSSS
5. Refer to the exhibit. What is the consequence if SW1 port F0/1 is configured as an edge port?
• SW1 port F0/1 transitions to the learning state.
• SW1 port F0/1 can generate a temporary loop.
• SW1 port F0/1 becomes a non-designated port.
• SW1 port F0/2 no longer passes BPDUs to SW4.
6. Refer to the exhibit. What will allow a host on VLAN 40 on switch X to communicate with a host in VLAN 40 on switch Y?
• QoS
• routing
• trunking
• VPN
7. Refer to the exhibit. Spanning-tree port priorities are 128 for all interfaces. The network administrator enters the spanning-tree vlan 1 root primary command on S4. Which two port results are correct? (Choose two.)
• S1 Gi0/1 becomes a root port.
• S2 Gi0/2 becomes a non-designated port.
• S3 Gi0/1 becomes a non-designated port.
• S4 Gi0/1 becomes a root port.
• S4 Gi0/2 becomes a designated port.
8. Refer to the exhibit. Which two facts can be confirmed by this output? (Choose two.)
• This switch shows no configuration revision errors.
• This switch has established two-way communication with the neighboring devices.
• This switch is configured to advertise its VLAN configuration to other VTP-enabled switches in the same VTP domain.
• This switch will drop all VTP advertisements that come from the switches that are configured in the same VTP domain.
• This switch will cause no disruption in the VTP domain operations if the rest of the switches in the same VTP domain have a higher configuration revision number.
9. Refer to the exhibit. R1 is configured for traditional inter-VLAN routing. R1 can ping computer 3 but cannot ping computer 1. What is a possible cause for this failure?
• S1 port Fa0/11 is in the wrong VLAN.
• R1 does not have an active routing protocol.
• The IP address of computer 1 is in the wrong logical network.
• Router interface Fa0/0 has the wrong trunk encapsulation type configured.
10. Refer to the exhibit. Both switches are interconnected via a trunk link. Host A and host B are on the default VLAN but are not able to exchange traffic. What should be done to fix the problem?
• Allow all VLANs on the trunk link.
• Remove the native VLAN from the trunk.
• Include a router or switch with Layer 3 capabilities.
• Configure the same native VLAN on both ends of the trunk.
11. Refer to the exhibit. The hosts connected to switch SW1 are not able to communicate with the hosts in the same VLANs connected to switch SW2. What should be done to fix the problem?
• Configure VLANs with different VLAN IDs on switch SW2.
• Reconfigure the trunk port on switch SW2 with static trunk configuration.
• Introduce a Layer 3 device or a switch with Layer 3 capability in the topology.
• Apply IP addresses that are in the same subnet to the interfaces used to connect SW1 and SW2.
12. What happens when the crypto key zeroize rsa command is entered on a switch configured with the transport input ssh command on the vty lines?
• A new RSA key pair is created.
• The switch defaults to allowing Telnet connections only.
• The switch is no longer able to make SSH connections as an SSH client.
• The switch allows remote connections only after a new RSA key pair is generated.
13. Refer to the exhibit. An Ethernet switch has developed the CAM table shown. What action will the switch take when it receives the frame shown at the bottom of the exhibit?
• forward the frame out all interfaces except Interface3
• add station 00-00-3D-1F-11-05 to Interface2 in the forwarding table
• forward the frame out Interface3
• discard the frame
• forward the frame out all interfaces
• forward the frame out Interface2
14. Which two statements describe Spanning Tree Protocol? (Choose two.)
• It eliminates Layer 2 loops in network topologies.
• It eliminates the need for redundant physical paths in network topologies.
• It can only be used in networks in which Layer 2 switching is in use.
• It can only be used in networks where both routers and switches are used together.
• It can only be used in networks where routers are installed.
15. Refer to the exhibit. A new host needs to be connected to VLAN 1. Which IP addresses should be assigned to this new host?
• 192.168.1.11 /28
• 192.168.1.22 /28
• 192.168.1.33 /28
• 192.168.1.44 /28
• 192.168.1.55 /28
16. Refer to the exhibit. How does SW1 manage traffic coming from Host A?
• SW1 drops the traffic because it is untagged.
• SW1 leaves the traffic untagged and forwards it over the trunk.
• SW1 tags the traffic with the lowest VLAN ID value and forwards it over the trunk link.
• SW1 encapsulates the traffic with 802.1Q encapsulation and forwards it over the trunk link.
17. Refer to the exhibit. The switches are configured for VTP as shown. Which two statements correctly describe the operation of these switches? (Choose two.)
• A new VLAN can be added to Switch1 and that information will be added only to Switch2.
• A new VLAN can be added to Switch1 and that information will be added to Switch2 and Switch4.
• An existing VLAN can be deleted from Switch4 and that VLAN will be deleted from Switch1 and Switch2.
• An existing VLAN can be deleted from Switch2 and that VLAN will be deleted from Switch1 and Switch4.
• A new VLAN can be added to Switch4 and that information will be added to Switch1, Switch2, and Switch3.
• A new VLAN can be added to Switch3 and that information will be added to Switch1, Switch2, and Switch4.
18. Refer to the exhibit. Computer A sends a broadcast message. Which devices will see the broadcast?
• computer B
• computer B and Router1
• computer C and Router1
• computer B, computer D, computer E and Router1
• computer B, computer C, computer D, computer E and Router1
• computer A, computer B, computer C, computer D, computer E and Router1
19. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator enters the configuration shown to allow both SSH and Telnet connections to the switch. The Telnet connections fail. What is the most likely cause of this problem?
• The SSH version number is wrong.
• SSH has been configured on the wrong line.
• Telnet and SSH cannot be configured simultaneously.
• The transport input command is configured incorrectly.
20. Refer to the exhibit. Which switch will be elected as the root bridge of the spanning tree topology?
• Cat-A
• Cat-B
• Cat-C
• Cat-D
21. Refer to the exhibit. The switches in the exhibit have VTP pruning enabled. Which VLANs will be pruned from switch SW3?
• VLAN 10 and VLAN 20
• VLAN 1, VLAN 10, and VLAN 20
• VLAN 1, VLAN 1002 through 1005
• VLAN 1, VLAN 10, VLAN 20, VLAN 1002 through 1005
22. Refer to the exhibit. What does STATIC indicate in the output that is shown?
• The switch will not allow any other device to connect to port Fa0/15.
• Traffic destined for MAC address 0000.c123.5432 will be forwarded to Fa0/15.
• This entry will be removed and refreshed every 300 seconds to keep it in the table.
• The switch learned this MAC address from the source address in a frame received on Fa0/15.
• When processing a frame, the switch does not have to perform a lookup to determine the final destination port.
23. Which three statements are regarding router-on-a-stick inter-VLAN routing? (Choose three.)
• requires the use of subinterfaces on the router
• requires an access link between the router and Layer 2 switch
• more cost-efficient and scalable than using multiple physical interfaces
• requires each subinterface to be configured with the no shutdown command
• can impact performance if many VLANs compete for bandwidth on a single router interface
• makes troubleshooting the inter-VLAN routing configuration much less complex than when using multiple physical interfaces
24. Refer to the exhibit. Router RA receives a packet with a source address of 192.168.1.35 and a destination address of 192.168.1.85. What will the router do with this packet?
• The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.1.
• The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.2.
• The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.3.
• The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.2 and interface FastEthernet 0/1.3.
• The router will ignore the packet because the source and destination are on the same broadcast domain.
• The router will drop the packet since no network that includes the source address is attached to the router.
25. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator needs to remove the east-hosts VLAN and use the switch port from that VLAN in one of the existing VLANs. What two commands should be used when completely removing VLAN 2 from S1-Central while leaving the switch and all its interfaces operational? (Choose two.)
• S1-Central# reload
• S1-Central# erase flash:
• S1-Central(config)# no vlan 2
• S1-Central# delete flash:vlan.dat
• S1-Central(config-if)# switchport access vlan 3
26. Refer to the exhibit. What does “FORWARDING” mean in the command output shown?
• The switch is sending and receiving data frames.
• The switch is receiving BPDUs, but not sending data frames.
• The switch is participating in an election process by forwarding the BPDUs it receives.
• The switch is receiving BPDUs and populating the MAC address table, but not sending data.
27. Refer to the exhibit. Switch SW2 has been newly purchased and added to the network. What configuration should be applied to SW2 so that it participates in the same VTP domain as switch SW1, receives VLAN information from SW1, and synchronizes VLAN information?
• Disable VTP pruning on SW2.
• Configure SW2 in VTP transparent mode.
• Configure SW2 with the VTP domain password.
• Configure SW2 as a VTP server with a higher revision number.
28. What are three benefits of a hierarchical network model? (Choose three.)
• reduced contention for bandwidth
• reduced size of the physical layout
• increased fault tolerance of the network
• elimination of the need for wiring closets
• elimination of the need for layer three functionality
• simplification of management and troubleshooting
29. Refer to the exhibit. Which three options correctly identify information that could be associated with this output?(Choose three.)
• Interface FastEthernet3/0/0 is subinterfaced.
• A non-proprietary trunking protocol is in use.
• The configuration is appropriate for a router-on-a-stick network design.
• A shutdown command has been applied to interface FastEthernet3/0/0.
• Interface FastEthernet3/0/0.3 is mapped to the default management VLAN.
• An IP address should be applied to FastEthernet3/0/0 for correct data routing.
30. Refer to the exhibit. Switch SW2 was tested in a lab environment and then inserted into a production network without reloading its configuration. After the trunk link between SW1 and SW2 was brought up, all users lost connectivity to the network. What could be the source of the problem?
• All the VLANs were pruned from the trunk port between SW1 and SW2.
• SW1 and SW2 cannot be both set as VTP servers in the same VTP domain.
• VTP configuration revision number of SW2 was higher than the configuration revision number of SW1.
• The additional VLANs from SW2 created more VLANs than the VLAN database of SW1 could contain.
31. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator needs to implement inter-VLAN routing on a hierarchical network. On which devices should the inter-VLAN routing be configured?
• AS1 and AS2
• DS1 and DS2
• Gateway and CS1
• Gateway, CS1, DS1, and DS2
32. Which three statements are correct concerning the default configuration of a new switch? (Choose three.)
• Spanning Tree Protocol is disabled.
• Enable password is configured as cisco.
• All switch ports are assigned to VLAN1.
• The flash directory contains the IOS image.
• VLAN1 is configured with a management IP address.
• All interfaces are set to auto-negotiation of speed and duplex.
33. Refer to the exhibit. All hosts are in listen mode. Host 1 and Host 4 both transmit data at the same time. How do the hosts respond on the network? (Choose two.)
• After the end of the jam signal, a backoff algorithm is invoked.
• Hosts 1 and 4 are operating full duplex so no collision will exist.
• The hub will block the port connected to Host 4 to prevent a collision.
• Hosts 1 and 4 are assigned shorter backoff values to provide them priority to access the media.
• If a host has data to transmit after the backoff period of that host, the host checks to determine if the line is idle before transmitting.
34. Refer to the exhibit. After the listed commands are entered into router R1 and switch S1, the administrator enters the show interface fa0/1 trunk and gets the results shown. What is the likely problem?
• The trunk is established, but no VLANs have been configured to use it.
• The trunk has not been established because the router does not support dynamic trunking protocol.
• The router, the switch, or both must be configured with the dynamic desirable option for dynamic trunking protocol to establish a trunk.
• The router is missing the dynamic trunking protocol statements necessary to form a trunk.
35. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are about the operation of the interfaces? (Choose two.)
• Incoming traffic with VLAN ID 0 is processed by interface fa0/0.
• Incoming traffic that has a VLAN ID of 2 is processed by subinterface fa0/0.2.
• Both subinterfaces remain up with line protocol up, even if fa0/0 line protocol is down.
• Subinterfaces use unique MAC addresses by adding the 802.1Q VLAN ID to the hardware address.
• Traffic inbound on this router is processed by different subinterfaces, depending on the VLAN from which the traffic originated.
36. What three tasks should be performed before moving a Catalyst switch to another VTP management domain? (Choose three.)
• Select the correct VTP mode and version.
• Configure the switch with the name of the new management domain.
• Download the VTP database from the VTP server in the new domain.
• Configure the VTP server in the new domain to recognize the BID of the switch.
• Reset the VTP counters to allow the switch to synchronize with the other switches in the new domain.
• Verify that the switch has a lower configuration revision number than the other switches in the new domain.
37. Refer to the exhibit. Hosts A and B, connected to hub HB1, attempt to transmit a frame at the same time but a collision occurs. Which hosts will receive the collision jamming signal?
• only hosts A and B
• only hosts A, B, and C
• only hosts A, B, C, and D
• only hosts A, B, C, and E
38. Which statement regarding the service password-encryption command is ?
• The service password-encryption command is entered at the privileged EXEC mode prompt.
• The service password-encryption command encrypts only passwords for the console and VTY ports.
• The service password-encryption command encrypts all previously unencrypted passwords in the running configuration.
• To see the passwords encrypted by the service password-encryption command, enter the no service password-encryption command.
39. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are regarding what the cost value of 23 represents for Switch4? (Choose two.)
• This cost represents the lowest cost path for Switch4 to the root switch.
• A cost of 23 is the value being advertised out port 16 on the switch upstream (closer) to the root switch.
• Switch4 adds the cost of a Fast Ethernet link to 23 to determine its total cost to reach the root switch.
• Switch4 is connected via a Fast Ethernet link to an upstream switch that in turn is directly connected to the root switch via a Gigabit Ethernet link.
• The root switch is advertising a cost of 23, which is lower than any other switch in the VLAN0001 spanning-tree domain.
40. Refer to the exhibit. What three statements describe why Host1 and Host2 are unable to communicate? (Choose three.)
• The switch ports are on different VLANs.
• The switch IP address is on the wrong subnet.
• The hosts are configured on different logical networks.
• A router is required to forward traffic between Host1 and Host2.
• The VLAN port assignments must be contiguous for each VLAN.
• The host default gateway addresses must be on the same logical network.
41. Refer to the exhibit. Each switch is shown with its MAC address. Which switch will be elected as the spanning-tree root bridge if the switches are configured with their default priority values?
• switch A
• switch B
• switch C
• switch D
• switch E
• switch F
42. Refer to the exhibit. Hosts PC_A and PC_B send traffic simultaneously, and the frames from the transmitting stations collide. What is the last device to receive the collision?
• hub HB1
• switch SW1
• router R1
• switch SW2
• router R2
• switch SW4
43. Why is it important that the network administrator consider the spanning-tree network diameter when choosing the root bridge?
• The network diameter limitation is 9.
• BPDUs may be discarded because of expiring timers.
• The cabling distance between the switches is 100 meters.
• The network diameter must be set to the number of meters of the cable between the root bridge and its farthest connected switch.
44. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has segmented the network into two VLANs and configured Router1 for inter-VLAN routing. A test of the network, however, shows that hosts on each VLAN can only access local resources and not resources on the other VLAN. What is the most likely cause of this problem?
• Switch port Fa0/1 is not trunking.
• Router interface Fa0/0 is possibly down.
• No routing protocol is configured on Router1.
• One of the router subinterfaces is possibly down.
45. What is the purpose of issuing the command switchport mode access on a switch interface?
• disable port security
• make the port operational
• override the default port behavior
• force the port to be a part of a single vlan
46. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is regarding the information shown?
• Only one VLAN is currently configured to use the trunk links.
• The switch negotiated trunk links for interfaces Fa0/1 and Gi0/1.
• A Cisco proprietary protocol is in use for interfaces Fa0/1 and Gi0/1.
• Interfaces Gi0/1 and Fa0/1 are allowed to carry data from multiple VLANs
47. Which identifier is used to keep track of frames that are destined for a particular wireless client?
• AID
• SSID
• BSSID
• ESSID
48. Refer to the exhibit. What will happen when frames that contain an unknown source address reach interface fa0/24?
• A syslog message will be logged.
• Fa0/24 will become error-disabled.
• The incoming frames will be dropped.
• The security violation count will be incremented.
49. In which mode is a VTP switch operating if it has been configured to only forward VTP advertisements?
• client
• root
• server
• transparent
50. Which method establishes an administrative connection for configuring the Linksys WRT300N wireless access point?
• Associate with the access point and then open a HyperTerminal session with the access point.
• Physically connect to the access point and then reboot the computer to launch the configuration software.
• From a computer in the same IP subnet as the access point, enter the default IP address of the access point in a web browser.
• Modify the TCP/IP properties of the computer connected to the access point so that it exists on the same network, and then reboot your computer to establish a connection.
51. What two methods can be used to remove MAC address table entries from a switch? (Choose two.)
• Power cycle the switch to clear all dynamically learned addresses
• The clear switching-tables command will remove statically configured entries.
• The clear mac-address-table command will remove statically and dynamically configured table entries.
• The erase flash command will clear all statically configured table entries.
• Statically configured MAC addresses will automatically be removed from the address table 300 minutes after the last activity on a switch port.
52. What are two benefits of the IEEE 802.11n standard over the IEEE 802.11G? (Choose two.)
• requires less equipment
• provides improved range
• permits increased data rates
• has a single-input and a single-output
• needs no hardware upgrade for compatibility
CCNA 4 - Final Exam (A)
1. A network administrator is asked to design a system to allow simultaneous access to the Internet for 250 users. The ISP for this network can only supply five public IPs. What can be used to accomplish this task?
• routable translation
• dynamic translation
• static translation
• port address translation
2. The LAN attached to the Ethernet interface of the Raleigh router shown in the graphic is addressed with private IP addresses. If one public IP is assigned to the company, which commands could be used in a configuration that allows all devices with private IPs in this network to access the Internet? (Choose two.)
• ip nat inside source list 1 interface serial0 overload
• ip nat outside source list 1 interface serial0 overload
• ip nat inside serial0
• ip nat inside source list 1 pool Raleigh overload
• ip nat inside Raleigh overload
• ip inside nat source list 1 interface serial0 Raleigh
3. The command output shown in the graphic was taken from a Cisco 806 broadband router. Which kind of address translation is in effect on this router?
• static
• dynamic
• overload
• private
• public
4. Which of the following IP addresses are defined by RFC 1918 as private addresses? (Choose three.)
• 192.168.146.0/22
• 172.10.25.0/16
• 172.31.0.0/16
• 20.0.0.0/8
• 10.172.92.8/29
5. How will data be transmitted from the router to the ISP if the router has the two links shown in the graphic?
• Both links will transmit data at the same rate.
• 1544 bits can be transmitted simultaneously from the router over the T1 line.
• Both links will transmit bits one by one.
• The 56K link will transmit a maximum of 53 bits at the same time.
6. Which statements about DHCP are true? (Choose three.)
• DHCP uses TCP.
• DHCP uses UDP.
• DHCP sends messages to the server on port 67.
• DHCP sends messages to the server on port 68.
• DHCP sends messages to the client on port 67.
• DHCP sends messages to the client on port 68.
7. Which command would be used to exclude the IP address 192.168.24.5 from the DHCP address pool on a router?
• Router(dhcp-config)# ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.24.5
• Router# ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.24.5
• Router(config-excluded)# ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.24.5
• Router(config)# ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.24.5
• Router(config)# excluded-address 192.168.24.5
• Router(dhcp-config)# excluded-address 192.168.24.5
8. The WAN connection for a nationwide company with 250 offices must support constant connections to core layer services for file sharing, and occasional Internet access. Which combination of WAN technologies will meet these needs with minimum expense?
• Frame Relay PVC for Internet access and ATM for file server access
• Frame Relay PVC for Internet access and ISDN for file server access
• ISDN for Internet access and X.25 for file server access
• ISDN for Internet access and Frame Relay PVC for file server access
9. Which command would produce the output shown in the graphic?
• show ip dhcp server statistics
• show ip dhcp binding
• debug ip dhcp server events
• debug ip dhcp binding
10. Which of the following devices is used to establish the communications link between the customer equipment and the local loop for digital lines?
• terminal adapter
• modem
• CSU/DSU
• PBX switch
• ISDN switch
• Frame Relay Switch
11. Which of the following statements are true about Frame Relay? (Choose three.)
• Frame Relay operation is defined by a series of ISO standards.
• Frame Relay is a packet switched, connection-oriented, wide area network service.
• Frame Relay only supports point-to-point connections.
• A router can be considered as data terminal equipment (DTE) in a frame relay system.
• Frame Relay is a cell switched, connection-oriented, wide area network service.
• Frame Relay networks use a subset of the HDLC protocol to carry information.
12. ITU-T Q.921 specifies the use of which protocol for sending control and signaling messages between the router and the ISDN switch?
• HDLC
• IPCP
• LAPB
• LAPD
• NCP
• SS7
13. A company needs a WAN connection that is capable of transferring voice, video, and data at a minimum data rate of 155 Mbps. Which WAN connection is the best choice?
• X.25
• DSL
• ATM
• ISDN BRI
• ISDN PRI
14. Which statement explains why basic DSL is an unpopular WAN connectivity choice for enterprise computer departments that support home users?
• DSL offers insufficient bandwidth to home users.
• DSL requires the installation of new cables, which is not always possible for home users.
• DSL dialup connection time is too slow for business use.
• DSL has limited geographical availability.
15. When planning simple WAN connections for a small company, which feature of the three layer hierarchical model makes it a good choice for the WAN topology.
• It provides for redundancy.
• It allows for easy WAN expansion in case of company growth.
• It is less expensive.
• It provides faster connection time.
• It provides less latency and jitter.
16. Which of the following terms describes a device that will put data on the local loop?
• DLCI
• CO
• DCE
• DTE
• PRI
• BRI
17. Which of the following are supported by a BRI interface on a router? (Choose two.)
• Two independent channels that can carry analog data with a bandwidth of 64 KHz.
• A single 128 Kbps digital bearer channel.
• Two multiplexed channels carrying digital data.
• A single 64 Kbps signaling channel.
• A multiplexed data channel that can only handle SS7 information.
• A 16 Kbps delta channel used for signaling purposes.
18. A network administrator has been asked to provide the network in the United States with an ISDN WAN link. The router available to provide the WAN connection is a non-modular Cisco router with two serial connections. What must be done to adapt one of the serial interfaces of this router for the ISDN connection?
• Nothing. The router is already suitable.
• Purchase a BRI WAN interface card to install in the router.
• Purchase a U interface to install in the router.
• Purchase a TA/NT1 device to install on the router.
19 (NEED ANSWERS!!!)Which of the following is a function of a DCE device?
• determines the next-hop address for a packet
• multiplexes signals from several sources
• adapts information for use on a service provider’s network
• used to directly connect two DTEs to simulate a WAN network
20. Why would data frames be discarded in a Frame Relay network? (Choose two.)
• The frame contains an incorrect IP address.
• An error has been detected in computing the frame check sequence.
• There is not enough bandwidth dedicated for the data contained in the frame.
• Data is transmitted at a rate greater than the access speed.
• The frame contains an incorrect DLCI.
21. Which of the following are commonly used as Data Communications Equipment? (Choose two.)
• modem
• router
• CSU/DSU
• ISDN Switch
• Frame Relay Switch
22. Which of the following LCP options can be configured for PPP? (Choose three.)
• CHAP
• Stacker
• IPCP
• CDPCP
• Multilink
23. Which command will provide for CHAP authentication if the hostname on a challenging router is tampa with a password of florida?
• username tampa password florida
• username tampa florida
• hostname tampa password florida
• hostname tampa florida
24. Which of the following describes the PAP protocol? (Choose two.)
• sends unencrypted authentication passwords
• performs a three-way handshake
• allows repeated login attempts
• uses the remote router hostname to verify identity
• sends a random challenge throughout the session
25. Why was NAT created? (Choose two.)
• to create firewalls on routers
• to conserve IP addresses
• to translate domain names into IP addresses
• to map network addresses to the corresponding data link address
• to hide internal addresses from external devices
26. An ISDN router is configured for DDR as shown in the graphic to provide Internet connectivity for the company. Immediately after a user in the company attempts opens a web browser to connect to the Internet, another user in the company tries to download a file using FTP. What will happen? (Choose two.)
• The user that opened the browser will connect to the Internet because the DDR link will consider this traffic interesting.
• The Internet user will be disconnected because the FTP data will cause the DDR link to shut down.
• The DDR link will allow the FTP traffic because it is interesting.
• The DDR link will not allow the FTP traffic because it is not interesting.
• The FTP connection will fail because the DDR link is already in use for the Internet connection.
• The FTP connection will succeed because the web user already opened the DDR link.
27. Which command configures the SPID on the first B channel of an ISDN interface?
• Router(config)# isdn spid0 spid-number [ldn]
• Router(config)# isdn spid1 spid-number [ldn]
• Router(config-if)# isdn spid0 spid-number [ldn]
• Router(config-if)# isdn spid1 spid-number [ldn]
28. What does the command debug isdn q921 display?
• exchange of call setup and teardown messages
• PAP and CHAP authentication traffic
• Layer 2 messages on the D channel
• protocol errors and statistics
• Layer 2 messages on the B channel
29. When PPP authentication is enabled, which of the following may be checked before establishing a PPP link between two devices? (Choose two.)
• the enable password on the remote device
• the ip host configuration on the remote device
• the security server database for the username and password of the remote device
• the hostname and enable password on the local device
• the local database for the username and password of the remote device
30. How many separate B channel circuits can be provisioned on a PRI interface that uses a T1 line for connectivity?
• 2
• 16
• 23
• 24
• 30
• 128
31. Which operating systems support multiuser capability? (Choose three.)
• Linux
• Windows 98
• Windows ME
• Windows XP
• Windows 2000
32. What is placed in the address field of a frame that will travel from the DC office of ABC company to the Orlando office?
• MAC address of the Orlando router
• MAC address of the DC router
• 192.168.1.25
• 192.168.1.26
• DLCI 100
• DLCI 200
33. What does a DLCI of 0 indicate about a frame? (Choose two.)
• This is the first data frame sent by the router.
• This is a management frame.
• The encapsulation type is Cisco.
• The encapsulation type is IETF.
• The LMI type is Ansi or q933a.
• The LMI type is Cisco.
34. Which of the following protocols can be used to encapsulate data traffic sent from a router BRI interface? (Choose two.)
• Link Access Protocol - Data
• High-Level Data Link Control
• Logical Link Control
• Serial Data Link Control
• Point to Point protocol
• Binary Synchronous Control protocol
35. An administrator consoled into the Jelly router needs to telnet to the Butter router. What DLCI will the Jelly router place in the frame to perform this operation?
• 110
• 115
• 220
• 225
36. Which commands can be used to identify which DLCIs are active? (Choose two.)
• show frame-relay map
• show frame-relay lmi
• show frame-relay pvc
• show frame-relay interface
• show interfaces
• show ip route
37. A technician is testing the functionality of a recently installed router. The technician is unable to ping the serial interface of a remote router. The technician executes the show interface serial0/0 command on the local router and sees the following line in the output:
Serial0/0 is up, line protocol is down
What are possible causes for this command output? (Choose three.)
• remote CSU/DSU failure
• serial cable missing
• interface shutdown
• keepalives not being sent
• clocking signal missing
38. A router needs to forward a message received from a host. How does the router identify the correct VC to forward the message? (Choose two.)
• The router forwards the frame to all ports in the network and learns the address from the reply frame.
• The destination host IP address is embedded in the DLCI.
• The router searches Inverse ARP tables for maps of DLCIs to IP addresses.
• A table of static mappings can be searched.
• The router broadcasts a request for the required IP address.
39. Which of the following statements regarding point-to-point subinterfaces are true? (Choose two.)
• A point-to-point subinterface on one router must be connected to a similar subinterface on a remote router.
• Each point-to-point subinterface connection is configured with its own subnet.
• The DLCIs configured on the remote and local routers must be the same for the PVC.
• LMI frames are not transmitted through a subinterface.
• Routing updates in point-to-point networks are not subject to the split-horizon rule.
40. Which of the following can be concluded from the router output displayed in the graphic? (Choose two.)
• The local DLCI number of this PVC is 100.
• The interface has been configured for subinterfaces and this map is for subinterface 0.
• Inverse ARP has determined the remote ip address as 10.140.1.1.
• The LMI type is ANSI (0×64).
• There is currently no congestion on the link.
41. Which of the following are functions of the Local Management Interface used in Frame Relay networks? (Choose three.)
• exchange information about the status of virtual circuits
• map DLCIs to network addresses
• provide flow control
• provide error notification
• provide congestion notification
• send keepalive packets to verify operation of the PVC
42. Which of the following describe functions of the Point-to-Point protocol with regards to the OSI model? (Choose three.)
• PPP uses Layer 3 of the OSI model to establish and maintain a session between devices.
• PPP operates at all layers of the OSI model.
• PPP uses the data link layer to configure such options as error detection and compression.
• PPP provides a mechanism to multiplex several network layer protocols.
• PPP uses Network Control Protocols (NCP) to test and maintain connectivity between devices.
• PPP can be configured on both synchronous and asynchronous serial interfaces.
43. Which of the following describes the CHAP protocol? (Choose three.)
• exchanges a random challenge number during the session to verfiy identity
• sends authentication password to verify identity
• prevents transmission of login information in plain text
• disconnects the PPP session if authentication fails
• initiates a two-way handshake
44. Which of the following switching types will allow the communication devices in the provider’s network to be shared and only allocated to an individual subscriber during data transfer?
• circuit-switched
• packet-switched
• frame-switched
• dedicated-switched lines
• lease-switched
45. How does Frame Relay technology process frames that contain errors? (Choose two.)
• Frame Relay services depend on the upper layer protocols to handle error recovery.
• It requires the receiving device to request that the sender retransmit erroneous frames.
• FECN, BECN, and DE bits are set in the frames to minimize errors.
• The receiving device drops any frames that contain errors without notifying the sender.
• The frame relay switch notifies the sender that errors were detected.
46. Which of the following describes the WAN devices and cabling shown in the graphic? (Choose two.)
• A null-modem cable is used between RouterD and DeviceC for connectivity.
• A DB-25 or DB-9 serial cable is connected to interface S0/0 of RouterA.
• DeviceB and DeviceC are DCE devices.
• The same encoding scheme must be used by DeviceB and DeviceC.
• A synchronous serial connection exists between DeviceB and DeviceC.
• routable translation
• dynamic translation
• static translation
• port address translation
2. The LAN attached to the Ethernet interface of the Raleigh router shown in the graphic is addressed with private IP addresses. If one public IP is assigned to the company, which commands could be used in a configuration that allows all devices with private IPs in this network to access the Internet? (Choose two.)
• ip nat inside source list 1 interface serial0 overload
• ip nat outside source list 1 interface serial0 overload
• ip nat inside serial0
• ip nat inside source list 1 pool Raleigh overload
• ip nat inside Raleigh overload
• ip inside nat source list 1 interface serial0 Raleigh
3. The command output shown in the graphic was taken from a Cisco 806 broadband router. Which kind of address translation is in effect on this router?
• static
• dynamic
• overload
• private
• public
4. Which of the following IP addresses are defined by RFC 1918 as private addresses? (Choose three.)
• 192.168.146.0/22
• 172.10.25.0/16
• 172.31.0.0/16
• 20.0.0.0/8
• 10.172.92.8/29
5. How will data be transmitted from the router to the ISP if the router has the two links shown in the graphic?
• Both links will transmit data at the same rate.
• 1544 bits can be transmitted simultaneously from the router over the T1 line.
• Both links will transmit bits one by one.
• The 56K link will transmit a maximum of 53 bits at the same time.
6. Which statements about DHCP are true? (Choose three.)
• DHCP uses TCP.
• DHCP uses UDP.
• DHCP sends messages to the server on port 67.
• DHCP sends messages to the server on port 68.
• DHCP sends messages to the client on port 67.
• DHCP sends messages to the client on port 68.
7. Which command would be used to exclude the IP address 192.168.24.5 from the DHCP address pool on a router?
• Router(dhcp-config)# ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.24.5
• Router# ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.24.5
• Router(config-excluded)# ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.24.5
• Router(config)# ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.24.5
• Router(config)# excluded-address 192.168.24.5
• Router(dhcp-config)# excluded-address 192.168.24.5
8. The WAN connection for a nationwide company with 250 offices must support constant connections to core layer services for file sharing, and occasional Internet access. Which combination of WAN technologies will meet these needs with minimum expense?
• Frame Relay PVC for Internet access and ATM for file server access
• Frame Relay PVC for Internet access and ISDN for file server access
• ISDN for Internet access and X.25 for file server access
• ISDN for Internet access and Frame Relay PVC for file server access
9. Which command would produce the output shown in the graphic?
• show ip dhcp server statistics
• show ip dhcp binding
• debug ip dhcp server events
• debug ip dhcp binding
10. Which of the following devices is used to establish the communications link between the customer equipment and the local loop for digital lines?
• terminal adapter
• modem
• CSU/DSU
• PBX switch
• ISDN switch
• Frame Relay Switch
11. Which of the following statements are true about Frame Relay? (Choose three.)
• Frame Relay operation is defined by a series of ISO standards.
• Frame Relay is a packet switched, connection-oriented, wide area network service.
• Frame Relay only supports point-to-point connections.
• A router can be considered as data terminal equipment (DTE) in a frame relay system.
• Frame Relay is a cell switched, connection-oriented, wide area network service.
• Frame Relay networks use a subset of the HDLC protocol to carry information.
12. ITU-T Q.921 specifies the use of which protocol for sending control and signaling messages between the router and the ISDN switch?
• HDLC
• IPCP
• LAPB
• LAPD
• NCP
• SS7
13. A company needs a WAN connection that is capable of transferring voice, video, and data at a minimum data rate of 155 Mbps. Which WAN connection is the best choice?
• X.25
• DSL
• ATM
• ISDN BRI
• ISDN PRI
14. Which statement explains why basic DSL is an unpopular WAN connectivity choice for enterprise computer departments that support home users?
• DSL offers insufficient bandwidth to home users.
• DSL requires the installation of new cables, which is not always possible for home users.
• DSL dialup connection time is too slow for business use.
• DSL has limited geographical availability.
15. When planning simple WAN connections for a small company, which feature of the three layer hierarchical model makes it a good choice for the WAN topology.
• It provides for redundancy.
• It allows for easy WAN expansion in case of company growth.
• It is less expensive.
• It provides faster connection time.
• It provides less latency and jitter.
16. Which of the following terms describes a device that will put data on the local loop?
• DLCI
• CO
• DCE
• DTE
• PRI
• BRI
17. Which of the following are supported by a BRI interface on a router? (Choose two.)
• Two independent channels that can carry analog data with a bandwidth of 64 KHz.
• A single 128 Kbps digital bearer channel.
• Two multiplexed channels carrying digital data.
• A single 64 Kbps signaling channel.
• A multiplexed data channel that can only handle SS7 information.
• A 16 Kbps delta channel used for signaling purposes.
18. A network administrator has been asked to provide the network in the United States with an ISDN WAN link. The router available to provide the WAN connection is a non-modular Cisco router with two serial connections. What must be done to adapt one of the serial interfaces of this router for the ISDN connection?
• Nothing. The router is already suitable.
• Purchase a BRI WAN interface card to install in the router.
• Purchase a U interface to install in the router.
• Purchase a TA/NT1 device to install on the router.
19 (NEED ANSWERS!!!)Which of the following is a function of a DCE device?
• determines the next-hop address for a packet
• multiplexes signals from several sources
• adapts information for use on a service provider’s network
• used to directly connect two DTEs to simulate a WAN network
20. Why would data frames be discarded in a Frame Relay network? (Choose two.)
• The frame contains an incorrect IP address.
• An error has been detected in computing the frame check sequence.
• There is not enough bandwidth dedicated for the data contained in the frame.
• Data is transmitted at a rate greater than the access speed.
• The frame contains an incorrect DLCI.
21. Which of the following are commonly used as Data Communications Equipment? (Choose two.)
• modem
• router
• CSU/DSU
• ISDN Switch
• Frame Relay Switch
22. Which of the following LCP options can be configured for PPP? (Choose three.)
• CHAP
• Stacker
• IPCP
• CDPCP
• Multilink
23. Which command will provide for CHAP authentication if the hostname on a challenging router is tampa with a password of florida?
• username tampa password florida
• username tampa florida
• hostname tampa password florida
• hostname tampa florida
24. Which of the following describes the PAP protocol? (Choose two.)
• sends unencrypted authentication passwords
• performs a three-way handshake
• allows repeated login attempts
• uses the remote router hostname to verify identity
• sends a random challenge throughout the session
25. Why was NAT created? (Choose two.)
• to create firewalls on routers
• to conserve IP addresses
• to translate domain names into IP addresses
• to map network addresses to the corresponding data link address
• to hide internal addresses from external devices
26. An ISDN router is configured for DDR as shown in the graphic to provide Internet connectivity for the company. Immediately after a user in the company attempts opens a web browser to connect to the Internet, another user in the company tries to download a file using FTP. What will happen? (Choose two.)
• The user that opened the browser will connect to the Internet because the DDR link will consider this traffic interesting.
• The Internet user will be disconnected because the FTP data will cause the DDR link to shut down.
• The DDR link will allow the FTP traffic because it is interesting.
• The DDR link will not allow the FTP traffic because it is not interesting.
• The FTP connection will fail because the DDR link is already in use for the Internet connection.
• The FTP connection will succeed because the web user already opened the DDR link.
27. Which command configures the SPID on the first B channel of an ISDN interface?
• Router(config)# isdn spid0 spid-number [ldn]
• Router(config)# isdn spid1 spid-number [ldn]
• Router(config-if)# isdn spid0 spid-number [ldn]
• Router(config-if)# isdn spid1 spid-number [ldn]
28. What does the command debug isdn q921 display?
• exchange of call setup and teardown messages
• PAP and CHAP authentication traffic
• Layer 2 messages on the D channel
• protocol errors and statistics
• Layer 2 messages on the B channel
29. When PPP authentication is enabled, which of the following may be checked before establishing a PPP link between two devices? (Choose two.)
• the enable password on the remote device
• the ip host configuration on the remote device
• the security server database for the username and password of the remote device
• the hostname and enable password on the local device
• the local database for the username and password of the remote device
30. How many separate B channel circuits can be provisioned on a PRI interface that uses a T1 line for connectivity?
• 2
• 16
• 23
• 24
• 30
• 128
31. Which operating systems support multiuser capability? (Choose three.)
• Linux
• Windows 98
• Windows ME
• Windows XP
• Windows 2000
32. What is placed in the address field of a frame that will travel from the DC office of ABC company to the Orlando office?
• MAC address of the Orlando router
• MAC address of the DC router
• 192.168.1.25
• 192.168.1.26
• DLCI 100
• DLCI 200
33. What does a DLCI of 0 indicate about a frame? (Choose two.)
• This is the first data frame sent by the router.
• This is a management frame.
• The encapsulation type is Cisco.
• The encapsulation type is IETF.
• The LMI type is Ansi or q933a.
• The LMI type is Cisco.
34. Which of the following protocols can be used to encapsulate data traffic sent from a router BRI interface? (Choose two.)
• Link Access Protocol - Data
• High-Level Data Link Control
• Logical Link Control
• Serial Data Link Control
• Point to Point protocol
• Binary Synchronous Control protocol
35. An administrator consoled into the Jelly router needs to telnet to the Butter router. What DLCI will the Jelly router place in the frame to perform this operation?
• 110
• 115
• 220
• 225
36. Which commands can be used to identify which DLCIs are active? (Choose two.)
• show frame-relay map
• show frame-relay lmi
• show frame-relay pvc
• show frame-relay interface
• show interfaces
• show ip route
37. A technician is testing the functionality of a recently installed router. The technician is unable to ping the serial interface of a remote router. The technician executes the show interface serial0/0 command on the local router and sees the following line in the output:
Serial0/0 is up, line protocol is down
What are possible causes for this command output? (Choose three.)
• remote CSU/DSU failure
• serial cable missing
• interface shutdown
• keepalives not being sent
• clocking signal missing
38. A router needs to forward a message received from a host. How does the router identify the correct VC to forward the message? (Choose two.)
• The router forwards the frame to all ports in the network and learns the address from the reply frame.
• The destination host IP address is embedded in the DLCI.
• The router searches Inverse ARP tables for maps of DLCIs to IP addresses.
• A table of static mappings can be searched.
• The router broadcasts a request for the required IP address.
39. Which of the following statements regarding point-to-point subinterfaces are true? (Choose two.)
• A point-to-point subinterface on one router must be connected to a similar subinterface on a remote router.
• Each point-to-point subinterface connection is configured with its own subnet.
• The DLCIs configured on the remote and local routers must be the same for the PVC.
• LMI frames are not transmitted through a subinterface.
• Routing updates in point-to-point networks are not subject to the split-horizon rule.
40. Which of the following can be concluded from the router output displayed in the graphic? (Choose two.)
• The local DLCI number of this PVC is 100.
• The interface has been configured for subinterfaces and this map is for subinterface 0.
• Inverse ARP has determined the remote ip address as 10.140.1.1.
• The LMI type is ANSI (0×64).
• There is currently no congestion on the link.
41. Which of the following are functions of the Local Management Interface used in Frame Relay networks? (Choose three.)
• exchange information about the status of virtual circuits
• map DLCIs to network addresses
• provide flow control
• provide error notification
• provide congestion notification
• send keepalive packets to verify operation of the PVC
42. Which of the following describe functions of the Point-to-Point protocol with regards to the OSI model? (Choose three.)
• PPP uses Layer 3 of the OSI model to establish and maintain a session between devices.
• PPP operates at all layers of the OSI model.
• PPP uses the data link layer to configure such options as error detection and compression.
• PPP provides a mechanism to multiplex several network layer protocols.
• PPP uses Network Control Protocols (NCP) to test and maintain connectivity between devices.
• PPP can be configured on both synchronous and asynchronous serial interfaces.
43. Which of the following describes the CHAP protocol? (Choose three.)
• exchanges a random challenge number during the session to verfiy identity
• sends authentication password to verify identity
• prevents transmission of login information in plain text
• disconnects the PPP session if authentication fails
• initiates a two-way handshake
44. Which of the following switching types will allow the communication devices in the provider’s network to be shared and only allocated to an individual subscriber during data transfer?
• circuit-switched
• packet-switched
• frame-switched
• dedicated-switched lines
• lease-switched
45. How does Frame Relay technology process frames that contain errors? (Choose two.)
• Frame Relay services depend on the upper layer protocols to handle error recovery.
• It requires the receiving device to request that the sender retransmit erroneous frames.
• FECN, BECN, and DE bits are set in the frames to minimize errors.
• The receiving device drops any frames that contain errors without notifying the sender.
• The frame relay switch notifies the sender that errors were detected.
46. Which of the following describes the WAN devices and cabling shown in the graphic? (Choose two.)
• A null-modem cable is used between RouterD and DeviceC for connectivity.
• A DB-25 or DB-9 serial cable is connected to interface S0/0 of RouterA.
• DeviceB and DeviceC are DCE devices.
• The same encoding scheme must be used by DeviceB and DeviceC.
• A synchronous serial connection exists between DeviceB and DeviceC.
CCNA 4 - Final Exam (B)
1. Identify the factors that contribute to congestion on an Ethernet LAN. (Choose three.)
• improper placement of enterprise level servers
• addition of hosts to a physical segment
• replacement of hubs with workgroup switches
• increasing use of bandwidth intensive network applications
• migration to full-duplex Ethernet within the LAN
2. Which of the following are examples of TCP/IP application layer protocols? (Choose three.)
• a terminal emulation protocol that supports remote console connections with various network devices
• a protocol created by IBM that makes it easier for mainframes to connect to remote offices
• a protocol responsible for transporting electronic mail on TCP/IP networks and the Internet
• a protocol that controls the rate at which data is sent to another computer
• a protocol that exchanges network management information between a network device and a management console
3. Which of the following eliminates switching loops?
• hold-down timers
• poison reverse
• spanning tree protocol
• time to live
• split horizon protocol
4. The show cdp neighbors command is a very useful network troubleshooting tool. Using the output in the graphic, select the statements that are true. (Choose two.)
• CDP operates at the network layer of the OSI model.
• The output of this command displays information about directly connected Cisco devices only.
• The switch is attached to the SanJose1 FastEthernet0/21 interface.
• SanJose1 is running CDP version 12.0.
• SanJose1 has two fully operational, cdp-enabled Cisco switches directly connected to it.
• SanJose2 is a 2600 series router running several routed protocols
5. A network administrator can ping the Denver router, but gets a ‘Password Required but None Set’ message when trying to connect remotely via Telnet. Which command sequence must be applied to the Denver router to allow remote access?
• Router(config)# line console 0
Router(config-line)# login
Router(config-line)# password cisco
• Router(config)# line vty 0 4
Router(config-line)# login
Router(config-line)# password cisco
• Router(config)# line virtual terminal
Router(config-line)# enable login
Router(config-line)# password cisco
• Router(config)# line vty 0 4
Router(config-line)# enable secret
Router(config-line)# password cisco
Router(config)# enable secret cisco
Router(config)# enable cisco
6. Which of the following is associated with link-state routing protocols?
• low processor overhead
• poison reverse
• routing loops
• split horizon
• shortest-path first calculations
7. A router does not load its configuration after a power failure. After running the show startup-configuration command, the adminstrator finds that the original configuration is intact. What is the cause of this problem?
• The configuration register is set for 0×2100.
• The configuration register is set for 0×2101.
• The configuration register is set for 0×2102.
• The configuration register is set for 0×2142.
• Boot system commands are not configured.
• Flash memory is empty causing the router to bypass the configuration in NVRAM
• Nederst på formularen
8. Which commands are used to verify the content and placement of access control lists? (Choose three.)
• show ip interface
• show ip route
• show processes
• show running-config
• show cdp neighbor
• show access-lists
9. Which of the following are required when creating a standard access control list? (Choose two.)
• destination address and wildcard mask
• source address and wildcard mask
• subnet mask and wildcard mask
• access list number between 100 and 199 or 2000 and 2699
• access list number between 1 and 99 or 1300 to 1999
10. Which of the following are keywords that can be used in an access control list to replace a dotted decimal wildcard mask? (Choose two.)
• most
• host
• all
• any
• some
• sum
11. Refer to the diagram. All ports on Switch A are in the Sales VLAN and all ports on Switch B are in the Accounting VLAN. How many broadcast domains and how many collision domains are shown? (Choose two).
• 3 collision domains
• 3 broadcast domains
• 5 broadcast domains
• 9 collision domains
• 10 collision domains
• 13 collision domains
12. Refer to the graphic. Using the most efficient IP addressing scheme and VLSM, which address can be configured on one of the serial interfaces?
• 192.168.16.63/27
• 192.168.16.158/27
• 192.168.16.192/27
• 192.168.16.113/30
• 192.168.16.145/30
• 192.168.16.193/30
13. What is the purpose of the Spanning Tree Protocol (STP)?
• prevents Layer 2 loops
• prevents routing loops on a router
• creates smaller collision domains
• creates smaller broadcast domains
• allows Cisco devices to exchange routing table updates
14. What is the purpose of a loopback address when using the OSPF routing protocol?
• activates the OSPF neighboring process
• ensures a persistent router ID for the OSPF process
• provides a backdoor for connectivity during the convergence process
• streamlines and speeds up the convergence process
15. Which statement is true regarding states of the IEEE 802.1d Spanning Tree Protocol?
• Ports are manually configured to be in the forwarding state.
• Ports listen and learn before going into the forwarding state.
• Ports must be blocked before they can be placed in the disabled state.
• It takes 15 seconds for a port to go from blocking to forwarding
16. Which sequence of commands is used to configure a loopback address on a router?
• Router1(config)# interface loopback 1
Router1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.1
Router1(config)# interface serial 0/0
• Router1(config-if)# loopback 1
Router1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.1
Router1(config)# interface serial 0/0
• Router1(config-if)# loopback 1
Router1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.0
• Router1(config)# interface loopback 1
Router1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.255
17. Which routing protocols are classful and do not support VLSM? (Choose two.)
• EIGRP
• OSPF
• RIP v1
• RIP v2
• IGRP
18. Refer to the graphic. Two switches are connected together through a trunk port. SW2 displays the message shown. Which of the following will solve the duplex mismatch?
• SW1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1
SW1(config-if)# duplex full
• SW1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1
SW1(config-if)# full-duplex
• SW2(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1
SW2(config-if)# duplex full
• SW2(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1
SW2(config-if)# full-duplex
19. Refer to the graphic. Two routers have been configured to use EIGRP. Packets are not being forwarded between the two routers. What could be the problem?
• EIGRP does not support VLSM.
• The routers were not configured to monitor neighbor adjacency changes.
• The default bandwidth was used on the routers.
• An incorrect IP address was configured on a router interface.
20. According to the the provided router output, which of the following statements is true regarding PPP operation?
• Only the link-establishment phase completed successfully.
• Only the network-layer phase completed successfully.
• Neither the link-establishment phase nor the the network-layer phase completed successfully.
• Both the link-establishment and network-layer phase completed successfully
21. Frame Relay is configured over a point-to-point connection between two routers. The output of the show frame-relay pvc command indicates that the status of this PVC is inactive. Which of the following devices could be the source of the problem? (Choose two.)
• local router
• local Frame Relay switch
• remote router
• remote Frame Relay switch
• R3 has the following configuration:
• R3# show running-config
• –some output text omitted–
• interface serial0/0
• bandwidth 128
• ip address 192.168.11.2 255.255.255.0
• encapsulation frame-relay
• frame-relay map ip 192.168.11.2 30 broadcast
22. After the command R3# debug frame-relay packet is executed, a ping is issued from R3 to R1 but is unsuccessful. Based on the output of the debug command shown in the graphic and the router configuration, what might be problem?
• No clock rate assigned.
• There is an incorrect DLCI number in the map statement.
• An incorrect IP address exists in the map statement.
• The encapsulation command is missing the broadcast keyword
23. Which statements are true regarding the Frame Relay LMI? (Choose three.)
• The LMI provides a virtual circuit (VC) status mechanism.
• The LMI type must always be manually configured.
• The available LMI types are NI1, DMS100 and 5ESS.
• The LMI types supported by Cisco routers are CISCO and IETF.
• The LMI type configured on the router must match the one used on the Frame Relay switch.
• The LMI uses reserved DLCIs to exchange messages between the DTE and DCE
24. Which statement describes the process that occurs in Network Address Translation (NAT) overloading?
• Multiple private IP addresses are mapped to one public IP address.
• The number of usable addresses assigned to a company is divided into smaller manageable groups.
• A pool of IP addresses are mapped to one or more MAC addresses.
• The router acts as a DHCP server and assigns multiple public IP addresses for each private IP address configured
25. Which two statements are true about the committed information rate on a Frame Relay link? (Choose two.)
• The sum of the CIRs for all PVCs must be less than the port speed.
• The sum of the CIRs for all PVCs must equal the port speed.
• The sum of the CIRs for all PVCs can be greater than the port speed.
• The DE bit will be set on frames that are transmitted in excess of the CIR.
• Frames that are transmitted at greater than the CIR will be discarded at the source.
• It is impossible to transmit frames at a rate in excess of the CIR
26. Which of the following commands would be used to troubleshoot the processing of call control functions such as call setup, signaling, and termination?
• show interface bri0/0
• show isdn active
• debug isdn q921
• debug isdn q931
• debug ppp negotiation
• debug ppp authentication
27. Which of the following statements are true regarding PPP? (Choose three.)
• PPP can use synchronous and asynchronous physical media.
• PPP can only be used between two Cisco devices.
• PPP carries packets from several network layer protocols in LCPs.
• PPP uses LCPs to establish, configure, and test the data link connection.
• PPP uses LCPs to agree on format options such as authentication, compression, and error detection
28. A network administrator is evaluating authentication protocols for a PPP link. Which of the following reasons might lead to the selection of CHAP over PAP as the authentication protocol? (Choose three.)
• establishes identities with a two-way handshake
• uses a three-way authentication periodically during the session to reconfirm identities
• control by the remote host of the frequency and timing of login events
• transmits login information in encrypted format
• uses an unpredictable variable challenge value to prevent playback attacks
• makes authorized network administrator intervention a requirement to establish each session
29. Why are static routes often used with ISDN DDR?
• They are more stable than dynamic routing protocols.
• They are more accurate than dynamic routing protocols because they are put in by a network administrator.
• They are easier to modify when a faster technology is installed.
• They prevent the unnecessary activation of the link
30. Assuming that four bits have been borrowed to make subnets, identify the subnet network addresses. (Choose three.)
• 192.168.14.8
• 192.168.14.16
• 192.168.14.24
• 192.168.14.32
• 192.168.14.148
• 192.168.14.208
31. A switch can be configured for three different forwarding modes based on how much of a frame is received before the forwarding process begins. Each of the numbered arrows in the accompanying graphic signifies the point in a frame where a particular forwarding mode will begin. Which one of the following groups reflects the sequence of forwarding modes signified by the numbered arrows?
• 1) fast forward
• 2) fragment free
• 3) store-and-forward
• 1) store-and-forward
2) fragment free
3) fast forward
• 1) fragment free
2) fast forward
3) store-and-forward
• 1) fast forward
2) store-and-forward
3) fragment free
32. Which of the following commands will display a communication message on a router before the router prompt is shown?
• banner motd * Property of TLC. UNAUTHORIZED USERS WILL BE PROSECUTED TO THE FULL EXTENT OF THE LAW. *
• message Property of TLC. UNAUTHORIZED USERS WILL BE PROSECUTED TO THE FULL EXTENT OF THE LAW.
• banner * Property of TLC. UNAUTHORIZED USERS WILL BE PROSECUTED TO THE FULL EXTENT OF THE LAW. *
• hostname (Property of TLC. UNAUTHORIZED USERS WILL BE PROSECUTED TO THE FULL EXTENT OF THE LAW.)
• Øverst på formularen
33. A router needs to be added to OSPF area 0. Which commands should be used to enable OSPF on the router? (Choose two.)
• RouterA(config)# router ospf
• RouterA(config)# router ospf 1
• RouterA(config-router)# network 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255 0
• RouterA(config-router)# network 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
• RouterA(config-router)# network 192.168.2.0 255.255.255.0 0
34. Refer to the graphic. Which of the following commands will configure router A for OSPF?
• router ospf 1
network 192.168.10.0
• router ospf 1
network 192.168.10.64 0.0.0.63 area 0
network 192.168.10.192 0.0.0.3 area 0
• router ospf 1
network 192.168.10.64 255.255.255.192
network 192.168.10.192 255.255.255.252
• router ospf 1
network 192.168.10.0 area 0
35. Which of the following protocols would exchange information between routers to share network addresses and their metrics?
• TCP
• RIP
• CSMA/CD
• Ethernet
36. Which ISDN device can be directly connected to a two-wire local loop in a North American city?
• a router with a serial interface
• a router with an S/T interface
• a router with a U interface
• an ISDN terminal adapter
37. The output of the show ip interfaces brief command indicates that Serial0 is up but the line protocol is down. Which of the following are possible causes for the line protocol being in the down state? (Choose two.)
• The clock rate is not set on the DTE.
• An incorrect default gateway is set on the router.
• A network is missing from the routing protocol configuration.
• The encapsulation on the Serial0 interface is incorrect.
• Keepalives are not being sent by the remote device
38. Which of the following is a characteristics of TCP? (Choose two.)
• data transport reliability
• best path determination
• establishing, maintaining, and terminating virtual circuits
• encapsulation of packets in a data frame with source and destination MAC addresses
• best-effort datagram delivery
39. Which statement is true regarding the command ip route 192.168.7.24 255.255.255.248 192.168.7.9? (Choose two.)
• A packet destined for host 192.168.7.30 will be forwarded to address 192.168.7.9.
• 192.168.7.9 is the destination network for this route.
• 192.168.7.24 is the next-hop router in this command.
• This command is issued from the interface configuration mode.
• This command is used to define a static route
40. Which of the following application layer protocols use TCP? (Choose three.)
• SMTP
• FTP
• SNMP
• HTTP
• TFTP
• DHCP
41. Which terms refer to Frame Relay congestion management mechanisms? (Choose three.)
• BECN
• DLCI
• DE
• FECN
• LMI
• Inverse ARP
42. Which of the following router commands will verify that a path exists to a destination network?
• Router# show ip interfaces brief
• Router# show ip route
• Router# show cdp neighbors
• Router# show running-config
• Router# show protocols
43. When EIGRP is configured on a router, which table of DUAL information is used to calculate the best route to each destination router?
• router table
• topology table
• DUAL table
• CAM table
• ARP table
44. Refer to the graphic. Routers A and B have EIGRP configured and automatic summarization has been disabled on both routers. Which of the following commands is used on router A to summarize the attached routes, and to which interface is this command applied? (Choose two)
• ip summary-address eigrp 1 192.168.10.64 255.255.255.192
• ip area-range eigrp 1 192.168.10.80 255.255.255.224
• summary-address 192.168.10.80 0.0.0.31
• ip summary-address eigrp 1 192.168.10.64 0.0.0.63
• serial interface on router A
• serial interface on router B
45. A router with two LAN interfaces, two WAN interfaces, and two loopback interfaces configured is operating with OSPF as its routing protocol. What is used by the OSPF process to assign the router ID?
• the IP address of the interface configured with priority 0
• the OSPF area ID configured on the interface with the highest IP address
• the loopback with the highest IP address configured
• the highest IP address on the LAN interfaces
• the highest IP address configured on the WAN interfaces
46. Given the IP address and subnet mask of 172.16.134.56 255.255.255.224, on which subnetwork does this address reside?
• 172.0.0.0
• 172.16.134.0
• 172.16.134.32
• 172.16.134.48
• 172.16.134.47
• 172.16.134.63
47. Which commands show when the last IGRP routing update was received? (Choose two.)
• Router# show ip protocols
• Router# show version
• Router# show interfaces
• Router# show ip updates
• Router# show ip route
48. When using access control lists to filter traffic, which of the following is used to track multiple sessions occurring between hosts?
• IP addresses
• subnet masks
• port numbers
• routed protocols
• routing protocols
• interfaces
49. Given the IP address and subnet mask of 172.16.134.64 255.255.255.224, which of the following would describe this address?
• This is a useable host address.
• This is a broadcast address.
• This is a network address.
• This is not a valid address
50. The company network shown in the drawing has to be subnetted. The company has leased the Class C IP address of 200.1.2.0. Which of the following network addresses and masks would be appropriate for one of the subnetworks?
• 200.1.2.96 255.255.255.192
• 200.1.2.160 255.255.255.224
• 200.1.2.80 255.255.255.224
• 200.1.2.32 255.255.255.240
• improper placement of enterprise level servers
• addition of hosts to a physical segment
• replacement of hubs with workgroup switches
• increasing use of bandwidth intensive network applications
• migration to full-duplex Ethernet within the LAN
2. Which of the following are examples of TCP/IP application layer protocols? (Choose three.)
• a terminal emulation protocol that supports remote console connections with various network devices
• a protocol created by IBM that makes it easier for mainframes to connect to remote offices
• a protocol responsible for transporting electronic mail on TCP/IP networks and the Internet
• a protocol that controls the rate at which data is sent to another computer
• a protocol that exchanges network management information between a network device and a management console
3. Which of the following eliminates switching loops?
• hold-down timers
• poison reverse
• spanning tree protocol
• time to live
• split horizon protocol
4. The show cdp neighbors command is a very useful network troubleshooting tool. Using the output in the graphic, select the statements that are true. (Choose two.)
• CDP operates at the network layer of the OSI model.
• The output of this command displays information about directly connected Cisco devices only.
• The switch is attached to the SanJose1 FastEthernet0/21 interface.
• SanJose1 is running CDP version 12.0.
• SanJose1 has two fully operational, cdp-enabled Cisco switches directly connected to it.
• SanJose2 is a 2600 series router running several routed protocols
5. A network administrator can ping the Denver router, but gets a ‘Password Required but None Set’ message when trying to connect remotely via Telnet. Which command sequence must be applied to the Denver router to allow remote access?
• Router(config)# line console 0
Router(config-line)# login
Router(config-line)# password cisco
• Router(config)# line vty 0 4
Router(config-line)# login
Router(config-line)# password cisco
• Router(config)# line virtual terminal
Router(config-line)# enable login
Router(config-line)# password cisco
• Router(config)# line vty 0 4
Router(config-line)# enable secret
Router(config-line)# password cisco
Router(config)# enable secret cisco
Router(config)# enable cisco
6. Which of the following is associated with link-state routing protocols?
• low processor overhead
• poison reverse
• routing loops
• split horizon
• shortest-path first calculations
7. A router does not load its configuration after a power failure. After running the show startup-configuration command, the adminstrator finds that the original configuration is intact. What is the cause of this problem?
• The configuration register is set for 0×2100.
• The configuration register is set for 0×2101.
• The configuration register is set for 0×2102.
• The configuration register is set for 0×2142.
• Boot system commands are not configured.
• Flash memory is empty causing the router to bypass the configuration in NVRAM
• Nederst på formularen
8. Which commands are used to verify the content and placement of access control lists? (Choose three.)
• show ip interface
• show ip route
• show processes
• show running-config
• show cdp neighbor
• show access-lists
9. Which of the following are required when creating a standard access control list? (Choose two.)
• destination address and wildcard mask
• source address and wildcard mask
• subnet mask and wildcard mask
• access list number between 100 and 199 or 2000 and 2699
• access list number between 1 and 99 or 1300 to 1999
10. Which of the following are keywords that can be used in an access control list to replace a dotted decimal wildcard mask? (Choose two.)
• most
• host
• all
• any
• some
• sum
11. Refer to the diagram. All ports on Switch A are in the Sales VLAN and all ports on Switch B are in the Accounting VLAN. How many broadcast domains and how many collision domains are shown? (Choose two).
• 3 collision domains
• 3 broadcast domains
• 5 broadcast domains
• 9 collision domains
• 10 collision domains
• 13 collision domains
12. Refer to the graphic. Using the most efficient IP addressing scheme and VLSM, which address can be configured on one of the serial interfaces?
• 192.168.16.63/27
• 192.168.16.158/27
• 192.168.16.192/27
• 192.168.16.113/30
• 192.168.16.145/30
• 192.168.16.193/30
13. What is the purpose of the Spanning Tree Protocol (STP)?
• prevents Layer 2 loops
• prevents routing loops on a router
• creates smaller collision domains
• creates smaller broadcast domains
• allows Cisco devices to exchange routing table updates
14. What is the purpose of a loopback address when using the OSPF routing protocol?
• activates the OSPF neighboring process
• ensures a persistent router ID for the OSPF process
• provides a backdoor for connectivity during the convergence process
• streamlines and speeds up the convergence process
15. Which statement is true regarding states of the IEEE 802.1d Spanning Tree Protocol?
• Ports are manually configured to be in the forwarding state.
• Ports listen and learn before going into the forwarding state.
• Ports must be blocked before they can be placed in the disabled state.
• It takes 15 seconds for a port to go from blocking to forwarding
16. Which sequence of commands is used to configure a loopback address on a router?
• Router1(config)# interface loopback 1
Router1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.1
Router1(config)# interface serial 0/0
• Router1(config-if)# loopback 1
Router1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.1
Router1(config)# interface serial 0/0
• Router1(config-if)# loopback 1
Router1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.0
• Router1(config)# interface loopback 1
Router1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.255
17. Which routing protocols are classful and do not support VLSM? (Choose two.)
• EIGRP
• OSPF
• RIP v1
• RIP v2
• IGRP
18. Refer to the graphic. Two switches are connected together through a trunk port. SW2 displays the message shown. Which of the following will solve the duplex mismatch?
• SW1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1
SW1(config-if)# duplex full
• SW1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1
SW1(config-if)# full-duplex
• SW2(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1
SW2(config-if)# duplex full
• SW2(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1
SW2(config-if)# full-duplex
19. Refer to the graphic. Two routers have been configured to use EIGRP. Packets are not being forwarded between the two routers. What could be the problem?
• EIGRP does not support VLSM.
• The routers were not configured to monitor neighbor adjacency changes.
• The default bandwidth was used on the routers.
• An incorrect IP address was configured on a router interface.
20. According to the the provided router output, which of the following statements is true regarding PPP operation?
• Only the link-establishment phase completed successfully.
• Only the network-layer phase completed successfully.
• Neither the link-establishment phase nor the the network-layer phase completed successfully.
• Both the link-establishment and network-layer phase completed successfully
21. Frame Relay is configured over a point-to-point connection between two routers. The output of the show frame-relay pvc command indicates that the status of this PVC is inactive. Which of the following devices could be the source of the problem? (Choose two.)
• local router
• local Frame Relay switch
• remote router
• remote Frame Relay switch
• R3 has the following configuration:
• R3# show running-config
• –some output text omitted–
• interface serial0/0
• bandwidth 128
• ip address 192.168.11.2 255.255.255.0
• encapsulation frame-relay
• frame-relay map ip 192.168.11.2 30 broadcast
22. After the command R3# debug frame-relay packet is executed, a ping is issued from R3 to R1 but is unsuccessful. Based on the output of the debug command shown in the graphic and the router configuration, what might be problem?
• No clock rate assigned.
• There is an incorrect DLCI number in the map statement.
• An incorrect IP address exists in the map statement.
• The encapsulation command is missing the broadcast keyword
23. Which statements are true regarding the Frame Relay LMI? (Choose three.)
• The LMI provides a virtual circuit (VC) status mechanism.
• The LMI type must always be manually configured.
• The available LMI types are NI1, DMS100 and 5ESS.
• The LMI types supported by Cisco routers are CISCO and IETF.
• The LMI type configured on the router must match the one used on the Frame Relay switch.
• The LMI uses reserved DLCIs to exchange messages between the DTE and DCE
24. Which statement describes the process that occurs in Network Address Translation (NAT) overloading?
• Multiple private IP addresses are mapped to one public IP address.
• The number of usable addresses assigned to a company is divided into smaller manageable groups.
• A pool of IP addresses are mapped to one or more MAC addresses.
• The router acts as a DHCP server and assigns multiple public IP addresses for each private IP address configured
25. Which two statements are true about the committed information rate on a Frame Relay link? (Choose two.)
• The sum of the CIRs for all PVCs must be less than the port speed.
• The sum of the CIRs for all PVCs must equal the port speed.
• The sum of the CIRs for all PVCs can be greater than the port speed.
• The DE bit will be set on frames that are transmitted in excess of the CIR.
• Frames that are transmitted at greater than the CIR will be discarded at the source.
• It is impossible to transmit frames at a rate in excess of the CIR
26. Which of the following commands would be used to troubleshoot the processing of call control functions such as call setup, signaling, and termination?
• show interface bri0/0
• show isdn active
• debug isdn q921
• debug isdn q931
• debug ppp negotiation
• debug ppp authentication
27. Which of the following statements are true regarding PPP? (Choose three.)
• PPP can use synchronous and asynchronous physical media.
• PPP can only be used between two Cisco devices.
• PPP carries packets from several network layer protocols in LCPs.
• PPP uses LCPs to establish, configure, and test the data link connection.
• PPP uses LCPs to agree on format options such as authentication, compression, and error detection
28. A network administrator is evaluating authentication protocols for a PPP link. Which of the following reasons might lead to the selection of CHAP over PAP as the authentication protocol? (Choose three.)
• establishes identities with a two-way handshake
• uses a three-way authentication periodically during the session to reconfirm identities
• control by the remote host of the frequency and timing of login events
• transmits login information in encrypted format
• uses an unpredictable variable challenge value to prevent playback attacks
• makes authorized network administrator intervention a requirement to establish each session
29. Why are static routes often used with ISDN DDR?
• They are more stable than dynamic routing protocols.
• They are more accurate than dynamic routing protocols because they are put in by a network administrator.
• They are easier to modify when a faster technology is installed.
• They prevent the unnecessary activation of the link
30. Assuming that four bits have been borrowed to make subnets, identify the subnet network addresses. (Choose three.)
• 192.168.14.8
• 192.168.14.16
• 192.168.14.24
• 192.168.14.32
• 192.168.14.148
• 192.168.14.208
31. A switch can be configured for three different forwarding modes based on how much of a frame is received before the forwarding process begins. Each of the numbered arrows in the accompanying graphic signifies the point in a frame where a particular forwarding mode will begin. Which one of the following groups reflects the sequence of forwarding modes signified by the numbered arrows?
• 1) fast forward
• 2) fragment free
• 3) store-and-forward
• 1) store-and-forward
2) fragment free
3) fast forward
• 1) fragment free
2) fast forward
3) store-and-forward
• 1) fast forward
2) store-and-forward
3) fragment free
32. Which of the following commands will display a communication message on a router before the router prompt is shown?
• banner motd * Property of TLC. UNAUTHORIZED USERS WILL BE PROSECUTED TO THE FULL EXTENT OF THE LAW. *
• message Property of TLC. UNAUTHORIZED USERS WILL BE PROSECUTED TO THE FULL EXTENT OF THE LAW.
• banner * Property of TLC. UNAUTHORIZED USERS WILL BE PROSECUTED TO THE FULL EXTENT OF THE LAW. *
• hostname (Property of TLC. UNAUTHORIZED USERS WILL BE PROSECUTED TO THE FULL EXTENT OF THE LAW.)
• Øverst på formularen
33. A router needs to be added to OSPF area 0. Which commands should be used to enable OSPF on the router? (Choose two.)
• RouterA(config)# router ospf
• RouterA(config)# router ospf 1
• RouterA(config-router)# network 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255 0
• RouterA(config-router)# network 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
• RouterA(config-router)# network 192.168.2.0 255.255.255.0 0
34. Refer to the graphic. Which of the following commands will configure router A for OSPF?
• router ospf 1
network 192.168.10.0
• router ospf 1
network 192.168.10.64 0.0.0.63 area 0
network 192.168.10.192 0.0.0.3 area 0
• router ospf 1
network 192.168.10.64 255.255.255.192
network 192.168.10.192 255.255.255.252
• router ospf 1
network 192.168.10.0 area 0
35. Which of the following protocols would exchange information between routers to share network addresses and their metrics?
• TCP
• RIP
• CSMA/CD
• Ethernet
36. Which ISDN device can be directly connected to a two-wire local loop in a North American city?
• a router with a serial interface
• a router with an S/T interface
• a router with a U interface
• an ISDN terminal adapter
37. The output of the show ip interfaces brief command indicates that Serial0 is up but the line protocol is down. Which of the following are possible causes for the line protocol being in the down state? (Choose two.)
• The clock rate is not set on the DTE.
• An incorrect default gateway is set on the router.
• A network is missing from the routing protocol configuration.
• The encapsulation on the Serial0 interface is incorrect.
• Keepalives are not being sent by the remote device
38. Which of the following is a characteristics of TCP? (Choose two.)
• data transport reliability
• best path determination
• establishing, maintaining, and terminating virtual circuits
• encapsulation of packets in a data frame with source and destination MAC addresses
• best-effort datagram delivery
39. Which statement is true regarding the command ip route 192.168.7.24 255.255.255.248 192.168.7.9? (Choose two.)
• A packet destined for host 192.168.7.30 will be forwarded to address 192.168.7.9.
• 192.168.7.9 is the destination network for this route.
• 192.168.7.24 is the next-hop router in this command.
• This command is issued from the interface configuration mode.
• This command is used to define a static route
40. Which of the following application layer protocols use TCP? (Choose three.)
• SMTP
• FTP
• SNMP
• HTTP
• TFTP
• DHCP
41. Which terms refer to Frame Relay congestion management mechanisms? (Choose three.)
• BECN
• DLCI
• DE
• FECN
• LMI
• Inverse ARP
42. Which of the following router commands will verify that a path exists to a destination network?
• Router# show ip interfaces brief
• Router# show ip route
• Router# show cdp neighbors
• Router# show running-config
• Router# show protocols
43. When EIGRP is configured on a router, which table of DUAL information is used to calculate the best route to each destination router?
• router table
• topology table
• DUAL table
• CAM table
• ARP table
44. Refer to the graphic. Routers A and B have EIGRP configured and automatic summarization has been disabled on both routers. Which of the following commands is used on router A to summarize the attached routes, and to which interface is this command applied? (Choose two)
• ip summary-address eigrp 1 192.168.10.64 255.255.255.192
• ip area-range eigrp 1 192.168.10.80 255.255.255.224
• summary-address 192.168.10.80 0.0.0.31
• ip summary-address eigrp 1 192.168.10.64 0.0.0.63
• serial interface on router A
• serial interface on router B
45. A router with two LAN interfaces, two WAN interfaces, and two loopback interfaces configured is operating with OSPF as its routing protocol. What is used by the OSPF process to assign the router ID?
• the IP address of the interface configured with priority 0
• the OSPF area ID configured on the interface with the highest IP address
• the loopback with the highest IP address configured
• the highest IP address on the LAN interfaces
• the highest IP address configured on the WAN interfaces
46. Given the IP address and subnet mask of 172.16.134.56 255.255.255.224, on which subnetwork does this address reside?
• 172.0.0.0
• 172.16.134.0
• 172.16.134.32
• 172.16.134.48
• 172.16.134.47
• 172.16.134.63
47. Which commands show when the last IGRP routing update was received? (Choose two.)
• Router# show ip protocols
• Router# show version
• Router# show interfaces
• Router# show ip updates
• Router# show ip route
48. When using access control lists to filter traffic, which of the following is used to track multiple sessions occurring between hosts?
• IP addresses
• subnet masks
• port numbers
• routed protocols
• routing protocols
• interfaces
49. Given the IP address and subnet mask of 172.16.134.64 255.255.255.224, which of the following would describe this address?
• This is a useable host address.
• This is a broadcast address.
• This is a network address.
• This is not a valid address
50. The company network shown in the drawing has to be subnetted. The company has leased the Class C IP address of 200.1.2.0. Which of the following network addresses and masks would be appropriate for one of the subnetworks?
• 200.1.2.96 255.255.255.192
• 200.1.2.160 255.255.255.224
• 200.1.2.80 255.255.255.224
• 200.1.2.32 255.255.255.240
CCNA 4 - Final Exam (C)
1. Which of the following describes the roles of devices in a WAN? (Choose three.)
• A CSU/DSU terminates a digital local loop.
• A modem terminates a digital local loop.
• A CSU/DSU terminates an analog local loop.
• A modem terminates an analog local loop.
• A router is commonly considered a DTE device.
• A router is commonly considered a DCE device.
2. What value in the address field of a Frame Relay header identifies the destination of the frame?
• CIR
• DE
• DLCI
• ISDN
• FRAD
• PVC
3. The serial PPP link between the Left and Right routers is configured as shown in the diagram. Which configuration issue explains why the link is unable to establish a PPP session?
• The IP addresses must be on different subnets.
• The usernames are misconfigured.
• The passwords must be different for the CHAP authentication.
• The clock rate must be 56000.
• The clock rate is configured on the wrong end of the link.
• Interface serial 0/0 on Left must connect to interface serial 0/1 on Right.
4. The output of the show interfaces serial 0/0 command for a frame-relay connection indicates that the serial line is up but the line protocol is down. What are possible causes for this? (Choose two.)
• There is an LMI-type mismatch between the Frame Relay switch and the router.
• There is no clock present on the serial interface.
• The interface is shut down.
• RARP is not functioning on the router.
• The cable is disconnected.
5. Which statements are correct about the point in the network where the responsibility of the service provider ends? (Choose three.)
• The International point is on the customer side of the network terminating unit(NTU).
• The United States point is at the interface of the customer-provided equipment and the local loop.
• The responsibility for this point is controlled by IANA.
• The point is called the demarcation point.
• The point is typically located at the service provider’s central office.
• The point is located between the customer’s local area networks.
6. While prototyping an internetwork in the corporate lab, a network administrator is testing a serial link between serial 0/0 interfaces on two routers. The labels on the serial cable ends have been damaged and are unreadable. What command can be issued to determine which router is connected to the DCE cable end?
• show interfaces serial 0/0
• show version
• show controllers serial 0/0
• show protocols serial 0/0
• show status serial 0/0
7. A network technician determines DHCP clients are not working properly. The clients are receiving IP configuration information from a DHCP server configured on the router but cannot access the Internet. From the output in the graphic, what is the most likely problem?
• The DHCP server service is not enabled.
• The inside interface for DCHP is not defined.
• The DHCP pool is not bound to the interface.
• The pool does not have a default router defined for the clients.
• All the host addresses have been excluded from the DHCP pool.
8. A technician enters the interface serial 0/0.1 multipoint command when configuring a router. What effect will the multipoint keyword have in this configuration? (Choose two.)
• Split-horizon issues will need to be resolved for this network if RIP is the routing protocol.
• A subinterface will be defined for each PVC.
• All the participating interfaces of remote routers will be configured in the same subnet.
• A single DLCI will be used to define all the PVCs to the remote routers.
• An IP address will need to be configured on the main interface.
9. When configuring a Frame Relay connection, when should a static Frame Relay map be used? (Choose two.)
• when the remote router is a non-Cisco router
• when the remote router does not support Inverse ARP
• when the local router is using IOS Release 11.1 or earlier
• when broadcast traffic and multicast traffic over the PVC must be controlled
• when globally significant rather than locally significant DLCIs are being used
10. Which router command would be used to associate a Layer 2 address with the corresponding Layer 3 address in the internetwork in the diagram?
• RouterA(config-if)#frame-relay pvc 100 192.168.15.2
• RouterA(config-if)#dialer-map ip 192.168.15.1 100 broadcast
• RouterA(config-if)#frame-relay map ip 192.168.15.2 100 broadcast
• RouterA (config-if)#dialer-map 192.168.15.1 101 serial 0 broadcast
• RouterA (config-if)#frame-relay dlci 101 192.168.15.1 broadcast
• RouterA (config-if)#dialer-map 192.168.15.1 inverse-arp broadcast
11. Which of the following ISDN protocols is responsible for call setup and call teardown?
• ITU-T Q.921
• ITU-T Q.931
• ITU-T I.430
• ITU-T I.431
12. What are two ways to resolve split-horizon issues in a Frame Relay network? (Choose two.)
• create a full-mesh topology
• disable Inverse ARP
• use point-to-point subinterfaces
• use multipoint subinterfaces
• remove the broadcast keyword from the frame-relay map command
13. What is the purpose of the command marked with an arrow shown in the partial configuration output of a Cisco 806 broadband router?
• defines which addresses are allowed out of the router
• defines which addresses are allowed into the router
• defines which addresses can be translated
• defines which addresses are assigned to a NAT pool
14. A system administrator is unable to ping the Serial0/0 interface of RouterB from RouterA. During the troubleshooting process, the following facts are established:
- IP addressing and subnet masks are correct.
- RouterA is a Cisco router and RouterB is a router from another vendor.
- RouterA is configured with the default encapsulation.
- The serial interfaces on both routers are up.
- The protocol is down on the serial interfaces of both routers.
What should the administrator do to solve the problem?
• Add a clock rate on RouterA.
• Enable the serial interface on RouterB.
• Change the encapsulation on both routers to PPP.
• Connect the serial cable to the correct interface on RouterB.
• Use the correct serial cable to attach the CSU/DSU to RouterB.
15. An ISDN circuit from a branch office is remaining connected to the regional office. A network administrator determines a user has initiated a continuous ping from a desktop computer to the regional office. Which configuration change would allow the ISDN circuit to disconnect during any attempts to ping, while otherwise functioning properly?
• change DDR from legacy to dialer profiles
• remove the dialer list statement from the configuration
• change the dialer list to exclude ICMP as interesting
• disable inverse ARP
16. Below is a list of DDR steps. Which of the following identifies the proper order of DDR?
1 - dial number is looked up
2 - interesting traffic triggers DDR
3 - route to destination is determined
4 - call is made
• 1,2,3,4
• 1,3,2,4
• 2,3,1,4
• 2,1,3,4
• 3,2,1,4
• 3,1,2,4
17. Which protocol should be chosen to support WAN connectivity in a multi-vendor system and provide strong security through authentication?
• NAT with DHCP
• Frame Relay
• HDLC with encryption
• HDLC with CHAP
• PPP with PAP
• PPP with CHAP
18. Which of the following are valid steps for a basic ISDN BRI configuration? (Choose two.)
• create subinterfaces
• define the LMI type
• set the SPIDs if required by the ISDN switch
• set the interface DLCI
• set the switch type
• specify the encapsulation as either Cisco or IETF
19. A branch office reports excessive connect time charges for an ISDN circuit used to connect to the regional office. Upon investigation of this issue, it is discovered that when an ISDN connection is initiated to the regional office it remains connected for an excessive amount of time. Which of the following configuration changes could be made to DDR on the router to reduce these connect time charges?
• use PPP multilink
• lower idle timer setting
• use CHAP authentication
• change DDR from legacy to dialer profiles
20. A network administrator is having difficulty in establishing a serial link between a Cisco router and a router from another vendor. Both routers are configured for HDLC encapsulation. Which statements are true regarding this configuration? (Choose two.)
• The Cisco HDLC frame uses a proprietary “Type” field that may not be compatible with equipment of other vendors.
• HDLC requires a clock rate to be configured on the routers at both ends of the serial link.
• PPP encapsulation is recommended for serial links between equipment from multiple vendors.
• Usernames must be configured at both ends of the HDLC serial link.
• The HDLC vendor type must be enabled on the Cisco router.
• There is a mismatch in the HDLC authentication password configurations.
21. Given the partial router configuration in the graphic, why does the workstation with the IP address 192.168.1.153/28 fail to access the Internet? (Choose two.)
• The NAT inside interfaces are not configured properly.
• The NAT outside interface is not configured properly.
• The router is not properly configured to use the access control list for NAT.
• The NAT pool is not properly configured to use routable outside addresses.
• The access control list does not include the IP address 192.168.1.153/28 to access the Internet.
22. The serial PPP link between the Left and Right routers is configured as shown in the diagram. Which configuration issue will prevent IP traffic from crossing this link?
• The passwords must be different for the CHAP authentication.
• The usernames are misconfigured.
• The clock rate must be 56000.
• The clock rate is configured on the wrong end of the link.
• The IP addresses must be on the same subnet.
• Interface serial 0/0 on Left must connect to interface serial 0/1 on Right.
23. What causes a DDR call to be placed?
• dial string
• DLCI
• idle time out
• interesting traffic
• PVC
24. Which two layers of the OSI model are described by WAN standards?
• Application Layer, Physical Layer
• Data Link Layer, Physical Layer
• Data Link Layer, Transport Layer
• Physical Layer, Network Layer
25. A technician is testing RouterA in the graphic. What is the condition of the circuit?
• The routers are configured for different encapsulations.
• The clock rate is not properly configured on the routers.
• The circuit from WAN provider has failed.
• Authentication is not properly configured on the routers.
• The circuit is functioning properly.
26. A network administrator must provide WAN connectivity between a central office and three remote sites: Orlando, Atlanta, and Phoenix. The Orlando and Atlanta remote offices receive sales orders and transmit shipping confirmations to the Central office consistently throughout the day. The Phoenix remote office consists of one salesperson traveling through the southwest territory. The salesperson occasionally needs to connect to the Central office for e-mail access. How should the network administrator connect the remote sites to the Central office? (Choose two.)
• Connect to the Atlanta and Orlando remote offices with Frame Relay connections.
• Connect to the Atlanta and Orlando remote offices with ISDN connections.
• Connect to the Atlanta and Orlando remote offices with POTS dial-up connections.
• Connect to the Phoenix remote office with a Frame Relay connection.
• Connect to the Phoenix remote office with a POTS dial-up connection.
27. When a Frame Relay switch detects an excessive buildup of frames in its queue, which of the following may occur? (Choose two.)
• Frames with the DE bit set are dropped from the switch queue.
• Frames with the FECN and BECN bits set are dropped from the switch queue.
• Frames in excess of the CIR are not accepted by the switch.
• The switch sets the FECN bit on all frames it places on the congested link and sets the BECN bit on all frames it receives on the congested link.
• The switch sets the FECN bit on all frames it receives on the congested link and sets the BECN bit on all frames it places on the congested link.
28. A system administrator is troubleshooting a connectivity issue between two routers in a new installation. The administrator enters the debug ppp authentication command on the WHSE router. The graphic shows a part of the output received. From this output, what is the most likely cause of this connectivity issue?
• There is not a route to the remote router.
• The ISDN circuit on the remote router has failed.
• The username/password was not properly configured on the WHSE router.
• The remote router has a different authentication protocol configured.
29. What does the output of the show frame-relay map command shown below represent? (Choose two.)
• Serial 0 (up): ip 172.30.151.4 dlci 122, dynamic, broadcast, status defined, active
• 172.30.151.4 represents the IP address of the remote router.
• 172.30.151.4 represents the IP address of the local serial interface.
• DLCI 122 represents the interface of the remote router.
• broadcast indicates that a dynamic routing protocol such as RIP v1 can send packets across this PVC.
• dynamic indicates that a dynamic routing protocol is enabled for this connection.
• active indicates that the ARP process is working.
30. What does the status inactive indicate in the output of the show frame-relay pvc command?
• The DLCI is programmed in the switch but is not usable.
• The DLCI was formerly programmed in the switch but is no longer there.
• The DLCI is usable but has little activity.
• The DLCI has been renamed for that PVC.
31. Which of the following IP addresses are defined by RFC 1918 as private addresses? (Choose three.)
• 192.168.146.0/22
• 172.10.25.0/16
• 172.31.0.0/16
• 20.0.0.0/8
• 10.172.92.8/29
32. After configuring a dialup ISDN circuit, a network associate begins testing the dialup connection. When attempting to ping a host on the remote network, the local router does not attempt to dial the remote access server. Which of the following are possible errors in this configuration? (Choose three.)
• PPP authentication is not properly configured.
• No dialer map is configured.
• The ISDN circuit connected to the remote access server is busy.
• No interesting traffic is defined.
• No route is determined to the remote network.
• A wrong number is configured in the dial string.
33. Two routers are connected through a Frame Relay, point-to-point PVC. The remote router is from a vendor other than Cisco. Which interface command is required to configure the link between the Cisco router and the other router?
• frame-relay pvc multipoint
• frame-relay pvc point-to-point
• encapsulation frame-relay cisco
• encapsulation frame-relay ietf
• frame-relay lmi-type ansi
34. Which circuit-switched WAN technology is often used to provide a backup for a leased line and additional capacity during peak usage times?
• X.25
• DSL
• ISDN
• cable modem
35. After the ISDN BRI interface is configured, which command can be used to verify that the router is communicating correctly with the ISDN switch?
• show dialer
• show isdn status
• show interfaces bri0/0:1
• show interfaces serial0/0.1
36. A system administrator needs to configure the regional office with ISDN for DDR connections to three remote sites. Each remote site requires different IP subnets, different encapsulations, and different authentication methods. The sites will not be connected at the same time. The company would like to accomplish this in the most cost effective manner. What method can the system administrator use to accomplish this task using the fewest B channels?
• Install and configure a PRI.
• Install and configure a BRI interface with separate SPIDs for each remote site.
• Install and configure a BRI with multiple switch types in global configuration.
• Install and configure a BRI using dialer profiles.
• Install and configure a separate BRI for each remote site.
37. A system administrator must provide Internet connectivity for ten hosts in a small remote office. The ISP has assigned two public IP addresses to this remote office. How can the system administrator configure the router to provide Internet access to all ten users at the same time?
• Configure static NAT for all ten users.
• Configure dynamic NAT for ten users.
• Configure dynamic NAT with PAT.
• Configure DHCP and static NAT.
• What the administrator wants to do cannot be done.
38. Which of the following are characteristics of Frame Relay? (Choose two.)
• circuit-switched
• connection oriented
• OSI Layer 3
• packet-switched
• reliable
39. Which of the following is the order for the three phases of establishing a PPP serial link with authentication?
• authentication, link-establishment, network layer protocols
• authentication, network layer protocols, link-establishment
• network layer protocols, link-establishment, authentication
• network layer protocols, authentication, link-establishment
• link-establishment, authentication, network layer protocols
• link-establishment, network layer protocols, authentication
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